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2009年10月17日

免费920-447学习资料

Filed under: Nortel — admin @ 11:02 pm

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Exam : Nortel 920-447
Title : NNCSE-Contact Center Exam
Version : Demo

1. An insurance company has SCCS 4.0, Symposium TAPI 2.2, Meridian 1 Option 11C 25.10 and Octel voice mail in their Contact Center. ? They have 50 call center agents. ? They want to implement a CTI application which will allow their agents to handle incoming and outgoing calls without phones, just with click of mouse. What application will accomplish that?
A. Symposium Agent
B. Symposium Web Client
C. Symposium Web Center Portal
D. Symposium Express Call Center
Answer: A

2. A customer has encountered a problem with their Symposium Agent server that requires a complete uninstall of the software from the server. Which step is NOT part of a complete Symposium Agent server uninstall procedure?
A. Remove Sybase Adaptive server software.
B. Remove Symposium Agent from the Client.
C. Remove Symposium Agent server components.
D. Remove Symposium Agent Call Rules Explorer from the server.
E. Remove Microsoft Transaction Server packages or COM+ applications from the server.
Answer: B

3. A life insurance company has a SCCS 4.0 with Meridian 1 Option 11C 25.30, MPS IVR, and Meridian Mail 13. ? The company also has a third party CRM application where they store all of their customers’ information, sorted by individual case number. ? They are using the MPS IVR to collect case numbers from callers and route the call based on that number. ? They want to implement a solution that will make their business more efficient. ? The solution will bring callers’ information from the CRM application to their agents’ desktops based on the callers’ input that is collected by the MPS IVR. Which application best meets their needs?
A. Symposium TAPI
B. Symposium Web Client
C. Symposium Web Center Portal
D. Symposium Agent and TAPI SP
Answer: D

4. A company has two Contact Centers in their facility; one is for sales and the other is for technical support for their products. ? The technical support group needs to access the internet and the intranet to effectively do their jobs. ? The company has decided to implement Symposium Agent 2.3. ? The technician loading the Symposium Agent 2.3 software onto the Windows 2000 server is logged on as a supervisor. During the software installation, the technician receives an indication on their monitor that some of the files would not load. After analyzing the information presented by the technician, what is wrong?
A. The technician should uninstall and reload the software again.
B. The technician should ignore the message unless it is a – *.dll file.
C. Only a user logged in with Administrator privileges can load software.
D. The technician should reload the software again because sometimes it doesn’t work the first time.
Answer: C

5. Given the following network information: ? A customer has Symposium Agent 3 to implement soft phone functionality. ? They have a web server and web directory set up. ? They created a Call Rule to deliver all telephony information to agents’ desktops through agentTab . ? Call Rule is executed when a call is presented to agents’ phone sets. ? The following day lunch agents report that agentTab is no longer populated with call statistics. What is the first step in troubleshooting this problem?
A. Restart SA server.
B. Restart agents’ desktops.
C. Verify that SA Watchdog service is running.
D. Verify that SA Call Monitor service is running.
Answer: D

6. A company is using Symposium Agent 2.3 with Symposium Call Center Server. ? The Symposium 2.3 has its own Windows 2000 server. ? The technician loaded the Symposium Agent 2.3 onto the Windows 2000 server as an Administrator. ? The security dongle is attached to the parallel printer port of the server. The Symposium Agent 2.3 is not working. Determine the next logical step to troubleshoot the problem.
A. Try to ping the PBX from the server.
B. Verify that the keycodes are correct.
C. Make sure there are no conflicts on the Sybase ports.
D. Check to see if the license.dat file is in the WINNTSystem32 folder.
Answer: D

7. A customer encounters a problem with their Symposium Agent server that requires a complete uninstall of the software from the server. Which step must be taken before the Symposium Agent components can be removed from the server?
A. Restart client computer
B. Restart server computer
C. Change Server IP address
D. Remove virtual directories from Internet Information Server.
Answer: D

8. A customer with a credit card business has a Meridian 1 Option 61C 25.10 and SCCS 4.0 with a third party database where all their customers’ information is stored. ? They want a Contact Center application that will increase productivity by providing their agents with screen pops at their PCs. ? If the customer is in the company’s database, the screen pops will be triggered by the caller’s phone number and will be populated with caller information as soon as the call arrives on the phone sets. ? If this is a new customer, a blank window will pop up to let them enter the caller’s information. Which applications will meet their needs?
A. Symposium TAPI and Symposium Agent
B. Symposium TAPI and Symposium Web Client
C. Symposium Web Center Portal and Symposium TAPI
D. Symposium Call Center Server and Symposium Agent
Answer: A

9. A dental equipment company has a Meridian 1 Opt 11C, SCCS 3.0, Symposium TAPI SP 2.3, Symposium Agent 2.3 and Meridian Mail 11. ? They have 25 agents and 2 supervisors. ? They run on a Windows NT network with Win NT workstations as client. ? They have a third party database where they have to log in manually using a complex sequence of user ID and passwords and a few additional key strokes into a similar window to get information about suppliers (mailing address, phone number, etc). ? They set up a keystroke call trigger to automate this task based on the CLID delivered by Symposium TAPI to their agents. ? The keystroke call trigger records all requested entries which are usually entered manually. ? They set up a call rule afterwards to be applicable for inbound calls only since they are an inbound call center and are to be activated when a call arrives based on CLID. ? They set up a call rules group as well. ? During the final testing phase, they noticed that it doesn’t work as it should; agents are getting database window popups on their monitors but they have to manually enter all data. It appears that the trigger isn’t working. What did they miss in the configuration?
A. They didn’t set up a call rules group.
B. The agents are not associated with a call rules group.
C. The agents don’t have local admin privileges on their machines.
D. The agents have to open the third party database manually and login in order to have the call rules work.
Answer: B

10. Given the following network information: ? A customer has a Meridian 1 Opt 11-C X11.25.40B, Symposium Call Center Server (SCCS) 4.0, Symposium TAPI 2.3, Symposium Agent (SA) 2.3 and Meridian Mail 12. ? They have a Win NT network with Win 95 clients. ? They want to move the server with TAPI/SA from Win NT to a Win 2000 operating system and to use the old server for another purpose. ? Therefore, they have to remove SA from that server. ? After they removed SA and MTS, they had to remove Sybase Adaptive Server. ? They stopped Sybase services, put them in manual starting mode and tried to delete the Sybase folder but they couldn’t delete them. ? An error appeared saying that those files are used by another application. What has to be done in order to delete the Sybase folder after stopping Sybase services?
A. Sybase folder cannot be read-only.
B. The server must be rebooted to release the DLLs.
C. All registry keys related to Sybase must be deleted.
D. The server must be rebooted to release the DLLs and all registry keys related to Sybase must be deleted.
Answer: D

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免费GB0-520学习资料

Filed under: H3C — admin @ 9:35 pm

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部分最新免费GB0-520认证题库：（您也可以联系我下载部分最新GB0-520考试题库）

　
　
Exam : H3C GB0-520
Title : Building Secure Virtual Private Networks

1. 若L2TP VPN接入方式形如"移动员工-PSTN-LAC-Internet-LNS-总部内网"，对这种接入方式，正确的说法有（）。
A. LAC 设备多由 ISP 提供； LNS 设备多由总部提供
B. 用户接入的 AAA 服务由 LAC 设备完成
C. 用户的最终授权和验证工作由 LNS 完成
D. L2TP 隧道由 LAC 发起，由 LNS 终结
E. PPP 通道最终建立在移动员工和 LAC 之间
Answer: ABCD

2. 密钥长一倍，安全强度就提高一倍。
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

3. AH 和 ESP 均可以穿越 NAT 。
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

4. 下面不属于 SSL 握手消息的是（）。
A. ClientHello
B. Alert
C. ChangeCipherSpec
D. ApplicationData
Answer: BCD

5. 为保证每个安全联盟所使用的密钥互不相关，每次建立安全联盟都要经过 DH 交换过程。
T. True
F. False
Answer: T

6. SecPath系列安全网关支持多种 VPN 业务，其中能提供数据机密性的是（）。
A. L2TP VPN
B. IPSec VPN
C. SSL VPN
D. GRE VPN
Answer: BC

7. IPSec 的配置中规定，一个接口上只能应用一个安全策略组，一个安全策略组中可包括多条策略。
T. True
F. False
Answer: T

8. 为了保证数据传输中的安全性， SSL 代理与后台服务器及客户端之间的通信都以密文方式进行。
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

9. 只有将报文加密才能保证不被篡改，除此之外其他办法均无效。
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

10. PFS 之所以更安全，是因为每次协商出的 SPI 均不相同。
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

11. L2TP 隧道的建立是一个三次握手的过程，而 L2TP 会话的建立是一个四次握手的过程。
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

12. 可提供数据加密功能的 IPSec 协议有（）。
A. AH
B. ESP
C. IKE
D. ISAKMP
Answer: B

13. 关于DVPN的说法，正确的是（）。
A. 是私有协议
B. 适合于通过骨干网互连的多个私网之间建立隧道
C. 封装格式是 TCP ，和 L2TP/GRE 不同
D. 可以穿越 NAT ，比 GRE 更灵活
E. 自动建隧道，扩容时不用修改已有的配置
Answer: ABDE

14. 网络通信对安全性的要求包括（）。
A. 一致性
B. 私密性
C. 完整性
D. 身份验证
Answer: BCD

15. SSL 版本正确的是（）。
A. SSL 1.0
B. SSL 2.0
C. SSL 3.0
D. TLS 3.0
Answer: ABC

16. 关于GRE的说法，正确的是（）。
A. 是第三层协议
B. 可以将非IP 包封装为 IP 格式
C. GRE 隧道经常用来让 IP 网络连通两个非 IP 的网络
D. 实现机制简单， CPU 开销小
Answer: ABCD

17. 关于 L2TP 的说法，正确的是（）。
A. 是Virtual Private Dial Network 协议
B. 是属于Remote Access 类型的 VPN 业务
C. 可以让PPP 链路层的帧在IP 层上传播
D. 客户端IP 地址由 Internet 上远端的服务器动态指定
E. 可以实现远端服务器对客户端的计费
Answer: ABCDE

18. SecPath防火墙产品的 HT 加密卡不可以热插拔。
T. True
F. False
Answer: T

19. 在 SSL 协议中，一个加密套件包括（）。
A.密钥交换算法
B.加密算法
C. HMAC 算法
D. SHA 算法
Answer: ABC

20. DVPN 支持全动态地址，即使两个 Client 的 IP 地址都不是静态的，而是动态分配的，也可以自动建立 DVPN 隧道。
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

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Exam : Oracle 1Z0-048
Title : Oracle Database 10g R2: Administering RAC

1. What is true about Virtual Internet Protocol Configuration Assistant (VIPCA)?
A.The VIPCA application must be run manually on all nodes in the cluster.
B.Each Virtual IP (VIP) configured requires an unused and resolvable IP address.
C.The VIP for each node should be bound to the adapter that is acting as the private interconnect.
D.The ifconfig -a command is used to back out a faulty VIPCA configuration.
Answer: B

2. When do you get the first notification after you execute the following command on instance RDBA1?
exec DBMS_SERVER_ALERT.SET_THRESHOLD(-
METRICS_ID => dbms_server_alert.elapsed_time_per_call,
WARNING_OPERATOR => dbms_server_alert.operator_ge,
WARNING_VALUE => ‘500000′,
CRITICAL_OPERATOR => dbms_server_alert.operator_ge,
CRITICAL_VALUE => ‘750000′,
OBSERVATION_PERIOD => 15,
CONSECUTIVE_OCCURRENCES => 3,
INSTANCE_NAME => ‘RDBA1′,
OBJECT_TYPE => dbms_server_alert.object_type_service,
OBJECT_NAME => ‘ERP’);
A.when the average elapsed time per call for the ERP service over a 45-minute period exceeds 0.5 seconds
B.when the average elapsed time per call for the ERP service over a 45-minute period exceeds 0.75 seconds
C.when the average elapsed time per call for the ERP service over a 15-minute period exceeds 0.5 seconds three consecutive times
D.when the average elapsed time per call for the ERP service over a 15-minute period exceeds 0.75 seconds three consecutive times
Answer: C

3. Your company asked you to implement RAC to enhance the scalability and availability of the database that you manage. Your coworker suggested that you use ASM as the only storage option. However, you implemented RAC with Automatic Storage Management (ASM) as well as OCFS as storage options.
What are the reasons for implementing both OCFS and ASM as storage options? (Choose all that apply.)
A.You want to avoid keeping Oracle binaries on local storage.
B.You do not want to use raw devices to store voting and OCR files.
C.You do not want to store any file other than voting and OCR files in ASM.
D.You want to use the Oracle Managed Files (OMF) feature but that is not supported by ASM.
E.You require OCFS to store archive log files because ASM does not support these files.
Answer: AB

4. Which two statements regarding Oracle Clusterware are correct? (Choose two.)
A.The Oracle Database 10g version of the srvConfig.loc file is the ocr.loc file.
B.The Oracle9i srvConfig.loc file still exists for backward compatibility in Oracle Database 10g.
C.The Oracle Database 10g CRS stack is compatible with Oracle 9i Group Services (GSD) processes.
D.The installation of Oracle Clusterware is not necessary if you have already installed vendor-specific clusterware.
Answer: AB

5. Over a six-month period, you have been regularly monitoring your four-instance RAC database, which is running on the first 4 nodes of a 6-node cluster, by using ADDM and by monitoring well-known combinations of wait event and statistics in AWR reports.
Two weeks ago, a newer version of your main application went live. Starting last week, you noticed a large increase in CPU time (consumed by the three application services on your RAC database) due to increased workload.
The OLTP and DSS services have not had a decrease in the percentage of time spent using CPU. However, for the BATCH service the percentage of time spent using CPU has gone down and the wait-time percentage has increased.
You want to recommend a tuning exercise to your team. Which two recommendations would you make first, based on the symptoms described? (Choose two.)
A.Tune SQL from the BATCH service programs because they may benefit from SQL tuning.
B.The BATCH service programs may scale well and could benefit from adding new database instances on either node 5 or 6, or on both.
C.Tune SQL for the OLTP and DSS service programs because they may benefit from SQL tuning.
D.The OLTP and DSS service programs may scale well and could benefit from adding new database instances on either node 5 or 6, or on both.
E.The OLTP and DSS service programs may scale well and could benefit from adding new database instances on one or both of nodes 5 and 6, and by adding more nodes the SQL for BATCH service programs would perform better due to more CPU power.
Answer: AD

6. After a power failure, you noticed that one of your cluster database instances did not start automatically, whereas all other instances came up successfully.
What would you do to determine the precise cause for the instance startup failure? (Choose three.)
A.Check the resource state by using the CRS_STAT command.
B.Check for OCR corruptions by using the OCRCHECK command.
C.Check the alert.log file that belongs to the instance that did not start.
D.Check the alert.log file that belongs to the Oracle Clusterware software.
E.Check if the Oracle Clusterware is functional by using the CRSCTL command.
F.Reboot the node where the failing instance resides to check if the problem is persistent.
G.Enable extra debugging in the Oracle Clusterware software by using the CRSCTL command.
Answer: ACD

7. The infrastructure team at your company is designing a Maximum Availability Architecture for your Oracle databases consisting of a four-node RAC cluster for the primary database with flashback database configured, and a two-node cluster for the standby database with flashback database configured. The standby database is in a separate location in another city. There are six services configured and clustered ASM is used for storage on the primary and the standby
Which two statements are true concerning this architecture? (Choose two.)
A.It protects against site failures after a switchover to the standby database.
B.It protects against instance failures after a switchover to the standby database.
C.It does not protect against node failures in case of a failover to the standby database.
D.It can help to prevent data corruptions before they happen on both the primary and the standby databases.
E.It does not provide for continuous availability of services in the event of a switchover to the standby database.
Answer: AB

8. Using Oracle Database 10.2 Enterprise Edition, you can create and configure a new ASM instance for a new RAC cluster using which two tools? (Choose two.)
A.CRSCTL
B.ASMCMD
C.Oracle Universal Installer (OUI)
D.Enterprise Manager Grid Control
E.Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)
F.Enterprise Manager Database Control
Answer: CE

9. James works as a senior DBA for a finance company. He plans to implement a test RAC environment. As per his plan, a three-node RAC would be implemented on a Windows platform, with the following points related to the storage of files:
1) A single Oracle home would be shared by all the nodes.
2) The data files will extend automatically because the autoextend feature will be enabled.
3) The Oracle binaries and all the database files would be stored in a single file system.
4) The hardware RAID is used to support high availability.
These are the some of the storage options available for RAC implementation:
Option 1:Use OCFS with ASM
Option 2:Use ASM and not OCFS
Option 3:Use OCFS and not ASM
Option 4:Use neither OCFS, nor ASM
Which storage option would you suggest for this plan?
A.Option 1
B.Option 2
C.Option 3
D.Option 4
E.either Option 2 or Option 4
F.either Option 1 or Option 2
Answer: C

10. Richard is a senior DBA and has prepared a plan for RAC implementation in his company. Given below are some of the tasks that he would perform as part of the plan:
1) Creating the Raw Devices Mapping file
2) Creating database services
3) Binding the partitions to raw devices
4) Creating the Voting Disk file
5) Creating an initialization parameter file
6) Creating the Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) file
7) Creating the tnsnames.ora file
Creating the database control file
During the creation of the RAC database, Richard can use the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to perform some of these steps but not all of them. Which steps should be completed before Richard starts creating the database by using DBCA?
A.2, 5, 7, 8
B.1, 3, 4, 6
C.3, 4, 6, 7, 8
D.2, 5, 6, 7, 8
E.1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7
Answer: B

11. Which statement regarding Clusterware is false?
(Choose the false statement.)
A.Oracle Clusterware is installed using the Oracle Universal Installer (OUI).
B.The ORA_CRS_HOME directory must not be the same as the ORACLE_HOME directory.
C.The Oracle Database 10g Clusterware stack is compatible with Oracle 9i Group Services (GSD) processes.
D.The installation of Oracle Clusterware is mandatory even if you have installed vendor-specific clusterware.
Answer: C

12. To install Oracle Database 10g RAC on a UNIX platform, which four directories will you identify for use? (Choose four.)
A.NET_ADMIN directory
B.Oracle inventory directory
C.group services directory (GSD_HOME)
D.Oracle base directory (ORACLE_BASE)
E.CRS home directory (ORA_CRS_HOME)
F.Oracle home directory (ORACLE_HOME)
Answer: BDEF

13. You have a two-node cluster (RDBD1, +ASM1 on ed-rac1and RDBD2, +ASM2 on node ed-rac2). Which two utilities would you use to check the OCR integrity? (Choose two.)
A.crsctl
B.cluvfy
C.crs_stat
D.ocrcheck
Answer: BD

14. Your colleague is working with Oracle Support to resolve an issue with the Oracle Clusterware software. Oracle Support advised your colleague to run the diagcollection.pl command and upload the result to Oracle Support.
What does the diagcollection.pl command do?
A.The diagcollection.pl command collects trace and log files from Oracle Clusterware only so that Oracle Support can analyze them.
B.The diagcollection.pl command collects log and trace files from the Oracle Database ORACLE_HOME so that Oracle Support can analyze them.
C.The diagcollection.pl command asks you from which part of the Oracle Clusterware installation you want to collect log and trace files for Oracle Support to analyze.
D.The diagcollection.pl command collects log and trace files from all Oracle clusters and database software installed on your cluster node so that Oracle Support can analyze them.
Answer: D

15. You are working with Oracle Support to resolve an issue regarding the Oracle Clusterware software. The Oracle support engineer wants you to upload all relevant CRS log and trace files.
How would you provide all the requested log and trace files?
A.Upload each and every available log and trace files to Oracle Support.
B.Use Grid Control to collect and send all required log and trace files to Oracle Support.
C.Collect all required log and trace files using the diagcollection.pl command and upload them to Oracle Support.
D.Use an operating system command to create an archive with all the log and trace files stored in the ORA_CRS_HOME/log directory and upload the files to Oracle Support.
Answer: C

16. A junior DBA is learning how to administer an Oracle Cluster and asks you how to diagnose voting disk online and offline problems, and where to find information on voting disk online and offline messages.
What would you advise this junior colleague?
A.There is no method to get this type of information.
B.Use evmwatch to make this kind of information visible.
C.Enable CSS debugging by using CRSCTL to make this information available.
D.Write a shell script that writes the output of crsctl query css votedisk to a file on a regular basis.
E.Look in the alert_.log file in the unified message and the tracefile directory in ORA_CRS_HOME because the Oracle Clusterware logs this kind of information by default.
Answer: E

17. Read the following statements about a file system:
1) It is compatible with Oracle 9i and Oracle 10g.
2) It is one of the solutions for managing Oracle binaries in a RAC environment.
3) It relies on storage hardware or host-based RAID functionality to support high availability.
4) It is a shared storage file system designed in such a way that you can avoid setting up of raw partitions to store certain files.
Which file system corresponds to these features?
A.ext2
B.NFS
C.ASM
D.NTFS
E.OCFS2
Answer: E

18. Read the following statements about the ASM and OCFS file systems:
1) It is compatible with Oracle 9i and Oracle 10g.
2) It is one of the solutions for managing Oracle binaries in a RAC environment.
3) It relies on storage hardware or host-based RAID functionality to support high availability.
4) It is a shared storage file system designed to eliminate the need for raw partitions to store certain files.
5) It is has integrated volume management with superior extent-based striping and mirroring.
6) It is a cluster file system with a volume manager built into the Oracle 10g kernel to manage Oracle database files.
Identify the correct grouping where Group A represents true statements about ASM and Group B represents true statements about OCFS.
A.Group A: 2, 3, 4
Group B: 1, 5, 6
B.Group A: 1, 3, 4
Group B: 3, 4, 5
C.Group A: 5, 6
Group B: 1, 2, 3, 4
D.Group A: 3, 4
Group B: 1, 2, 5, 6
Answer: C

19. Your storage administrator informs you about some disk corruption issues in the disk subsystem where your Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) is located. Your storage administrator has resolved these corruption issues by applying a patch to the storage subsystem, but to be sure that the OCR is not affected by this problem the administrator wants you to check the integrity of the OCR.
How would you do this?
A.There is no easy way to check your OCR for corruptions.
B.You can check whether the OCR is not corrupted by using the OCRCHECK command.
C.You create a logical export from the OCR by using the OCRCONFIG command and analyze the export file for errors.
D.You create a physical backup of the OCR by using the OCRCONFIG command, and if this succeeds without errors you know that the OCR is not corrupted.
E.You dump the OCR contents into a text file by using the OCRDUMP command, and if that succeeds without errors you know that your OCR is not corrupted.
Answer: B

20. What are two ways of knowing if a patch can be applied in a rolling fashion in your RAC environment? (Choose two.)
A.Use the opatch query command.
B.Use the opatch attach command.
C.Use the opatch rollback command.
D.Use the opatch lsinventory command.
E.The patch does not modify the data dictionary.
F.Look at the patch’s inventory file and look for set to TRUE.
Answer: AF

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Filed under: Cisco — admin @ 4:18 pm

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Exam : Cisco 642-523
Title : Securing Networks with PIX and ASA

1. The primary adaptive security appliance failed, so the secondary adaptive security appliance was automatically activated. The network administrator then fixed the problem. Now the administrator wants to return the primary to "active" status.
Which of these commands, when issued on the primary adaptive security appliance, will reactivate the primary adaptive security appliance and restore it to "active" status?
A. failover primary active
B. failover secondary group 1
C. failover active group 1
D. failover secondary standby group 1
Answer: C

2. Which three of these are potential groups of users for WebVPN? (Choose three.)
A. employees accessing specific internal applications from desktops and laptops not managed by IT
B. administrators who need to manage servers and networking equipment
C. employees that only need occasional corporate access to a few applications
D. employees that need access to a wide range of corporate applications
E. users of a customer service kiosk placed in a retail store
F. remote employees that need daily access to the internal corporate network
Answer: ACE

3. Which of these commands would block all SIP INVITE packets, such as calling-party and request-method, from specific SIP endpoints?
A. Group the match commands in a SIP inspection policy map.
B. Group the match commands in a SIP inspection class map.
C. Use the match calling-party command in a class map. Apply the class map to a policy map that contains the match request-methods command.
D. Use the match request-methods command in an inspection class map. Apply the inspection class map to an inspection policy map that contains the match calling-party command.
E. Group the match commands in the global_policy policy map.
Answer: B

4. Which mode of operation must you enter in order to recover the Cisco ASA password?
A. unprivileged
B. privileged
C. configure
D. monitor
Answer: D

5. Which of these commands will provide detailed information about the crypto map configurations of a Cisco ASA?
A. show run ipsec sa
B. show ipsec sa
C. show crypto map
D. show run crypto map
Answer: D

6. Which of these commands enables the DHCP server on the DMZ interface of the Cisco ASA with an address pool of 10.0.100-10.0.108 and a DNS server of 192.168.2?
A. dhcpd address 10.0.1.100-10.0.1.108 DMZ
dhcpd dns 192.168.1.2 dhcpd enable DMZ
B. dhcpd range 10.0.1.100-10.0.1.108 DMZ
dhcpd dns server 192.168.1.2 dhcpd DMZ
C. dhcpd address range 10.0.1.100-10.0.1.108
dhcpd dns 192.168.1.2 dhcpd enable
D. dhcpd address range 10.0.1.100-10.0.1.108
dhcpd dns server 192.168.1.2 dhcpd enable DMZ
Answer: A

7. The Cisco VPN Client supports which three of these tunneling protocols and methods? (Choose three.)
A. IPsec over TCP
B. IPsec over UDP
C. ESP
D. AH
E. SCEP
F. LZS
Answer: ABC

8. When configuring a crypto ipsec transform-set command, how many unique transforms can a single transform set contain?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: B

9. Refer to the exhibit. This adaptive security appliance is configured for which two types of failover? (Choose two.)
A. cable-based failover
B. LAN-based failover
C. stateful failover
D. Active/Standby failover
E. Active/Active failover
F. Context/Group failover
Answer: BE

10. Which command both verifies that NAT is working properly and displays active NAT translations?
A. show running-configuration nat
B. show nat translation
C. show xlate
D. show ip nat all
Answer: C

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for this small site has chosen to authenticate HTTP cut-through proxy traffic via a local database on the Cisco ASA. Which set of command strings should the administrator enter to accomplish this?
A. asa1(config)# static (dmz,outside) 192.168.16.6 172.16.16.6
asa1(config)# access-list 150 permit tcp any host 172.16.16.6 eq www
asa1(config)# aaa authentication match 150 outside LOCAL
B. asa1(config)# static (dmz,outside) 192.168.16.6 172.16.16.6
asa1(config)# access-list 150 permit tcp any host 192.168.16.6 eq www
asa1(config)# aaa authentication match 150 outside asa1
C. asa1(config)# static (dmz,outside) 192.168.16.6 172.16.16.6
asa1(config)# access-list 150 permit tcp any host 172.16.16.6 eq www
asa1(config)# aaa authentication match 150 outside asa1
D. asa1(config)# static (dmz,outside) 192.168.16.6 172.16.16.6
asa1(config)# access-list 150 permit tcp any host 192.168.16.6 eq www
asa1(config)# aaa authentication match 150 outside LOCAL
Answer: D

12. LAB
The answer for the question is not available now, we are appreciate if you can provide the answer to us!
15. The primary adaptive security appliance failed, so the secondary adaptive security appliance was automatically activated. The network administrator then fixed the problem. Now the administrator wants to return the primary to "active" status.
Which of these commands, when issued on the primary adaptive security appliance, will reactivate the primary adaptive security appliance and restore it to "active" status?
A. failover primary active
B. failover secondary group 1
C. failover active group 1
D. failover secondary standby group 1
Answer: C

13. Refer to the exhibit. Based on this output, which of the following statements is true?
A. The ACLOUT access list has been designed to allow the IP address with the network address of 192.168.6.0 to have unrestricted access to the web server at IP address 192.168.1.11.
B. The ACLIN access list permits web access from host 192.168.6.10 to all hosts behind the Cisco ASA.
C. The ICMPDMZ access list denies all ICMP traffic bound for the bastion host except echo replies
D. The ACLOUT access list has been designed to deny the IP address 192.168.1.11 web access to the host with a network address of 192.168.6.0.
Answer: A

14. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to authenticate remote users who are accessing the WEB1 server from the Internet. When a remote user initiates a session to the WEB1 server, the ASA1 security appliance will verify the user’s credentials with the TX_ACS AAA server via RADIUS. To accomplish this, the administrator must load and configure Cisco ACS software on the TX_ACS AAA server. During the process, the administrator must correctly configure the AAA client information in the Cisco ACS network configuration window.
What must the administrator place in field A (AAA Client Hostname) and field B (AAA Client IP address)?
A. AX_ACS
B?0.0.1.10
B. AEB1
B?72.16.1.2
C. Aave
B?92.168.2.10
D. ASA1
B?0.0.1.1
Answer: D

15. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding descriptions to class maps for each part of the modular policy framework. What text would the administrator add to the description command to describe the TO_SERVER class map?
A. description "This class-map matches all HTTP traffic for the public web server."
B. description "This class-map matches all HTTPS traffic for the public web server."
C. description "This class-map matches all TCP traffic for the public web server."
D. description "This class-map matches all IP traffic for the public web server."
Answer: D

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免费190-801学习资料

Filed under: Lotus — admin @ 10:32 am

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Exam : Lotus 190-801
Title : IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Application Development Update

1. Kristen has been asked to develop a Composite Application to "wire" the Customer, Orders, and Inventory applications together. She understands that this will result in communication among the different pieces of the new application. How does this communication work?
A. Components use the Composite Application Broker to communicate with each other. The Composite Application Editor is used to define Actions
and their parameters, and to configure Property Broker options.
B. Components use the Composite Application Broker to communicate with each other. The Composite Application Editor is launched from Domino
Designer to define Broker Properties and configure Actions and their parameters.
C. Components use the Property Broker to communicate with each other. The Property Broker Editor is launched directly from Domino Designer (or
can be launched via the CAE) to define Properties and configure Actions and their parameters.
D. Components use the Property Broker to communicate with each other. Domino Designer must first be used to define the Wiring Properties.
Composite Application Broker options can then be configured using the Composite Application Editor or from within Domino Designer.
Answer: C

2. Maxie is using the new "Defer index creation until first use" option in her views that have sortable columns, in order to delay creation of these extra indices until they are needed. She notices that the extra column indices are still being built immediately instead of being deferred. Why is this?
A. This option works only for categorized columns.
B. This option is related to the database’s full-text index, not the view index.
C. This option is valid only when the view is used in a composite application.
D. The server administrator needs to set the ENABLE_ON_DEMAND_COLLATIONS=1 setting in the server’s Notes.ini file.
Answer: D

3. The new "Composite Settings" option in a View column Properties box allows you to specify what?
A. An Action to perform when a row in the view is selected
B. A Property to publish when a row in the view is selected
C. Whether or not to display the column when the view is used in a Composite Application
D. An alternate font type, size, and color to use for that column when the view is used in a Composite Application
Answer: B

4. Clarisa’s agent needs to run every time the APP012 server is rebooted. There is no harm to data if the agent runs repeatedly, but Clarisa would like to minimize the impact to server performance. How should Clarisa trigger the agent to run?
A. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On event", and select "When server starts".
B. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On event", and select "On agent manager start".
C. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On schedule". Select "Run once", and select the schedule option "On server boot".
D. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On schedule". Select "More than once a day". Clarisa should determine how soon after a server boot the agent must be run. The schedule frequency should be set to that amount of time.
Answer: A

5. Barry has just closed the Property Broker Editor after specifying input and output Action parameters for his Composite Application Editor (CAE). He notices a curved arrow icon in Domino Designer next to the name of the Wiring Property. What should Barry do to ensure that his changes are saved within his Domino application?
A. Click the "Refresh" button, and then click the "Open" button in the window that displays.
B. Nothing. The Property Broker automatically saves changes inside the Domino application.
C. Click the "Merge WSDLs" button and click "OK" in the confirmation prompt that then displays.
D. Open the Wiring Property properties and ensure that the "Store in NSF" option is selected. The changes will be saved within the Domino application when Domino Designer is closed.
Answer: A

6. Luigi has created a view for his mail file that shows the size of the document. In that column, he would like to display the size as either kilobytes or megabytes. How can Luigi accomplish this?
A. Set the number format for the column to Size(K/M/G)
B. Set the number format for the column to Bytes(K/M/G)
C. Set the Preferences For Display format for the column to Size(K/M/G)
D. Set the Additional Display Formatting for the column to Bytes(K/M/G)
Answer: B

7. Samir wants to design and deploy a Composite Application that consists of components from two Lotus Notes databases that both reside on the same Domino Server. He would like to include the Composite Application definition inside one of the Lotus Notes databases, to make it easier to deploy and replicate. Can he do this?
A. No, a Composite Application definition must be hosted on a WebSphere Portal server.
B. No, a Composite Application definition must reside in a Lotus Notes database that is based on the "Blank Composite Application" template.
C. Yes, he simply needs to click the "New Composite Application" button in the Composite Applications – Application section of the Database design and begin writing the definition.
D. Yes, but first he needs to define the Composite Application in the Composite Application Editor and save the resulting XML file. Then he can create a new definition in the Composite Applications – Application section of the Database design and import the XML.
Answer: D

8. Nina has been asked to add several views to the Sales.nsf database, many of which are to include multiple sorted columns and multiple user-sortable columns. How can she help minimize the impact to the server from these new views?
A. Select the "Defer index creation until first use" Advanced Option from the Advanced tab of the database properties.
B. Open each view that includes sorted or user-sortable columns. Select the "Defer index creation until first use" Index option from the Advanced tab of the view properties.
C. Open each view that includes sorted columns. From the Sorting tab of the column properties of each sorted column, select the "Defer index creation until first use" option.
D. Open each view that includes a user-sortable column. From the Sorting tab of the column properties of each user-sortable column, select the "Defer index creation until first use" option.
Answer: D

9. The default view in the Notes 8 Contacts database allows you to display the information in the view either on a single line (as with a traditional Notes view) or in a "business card" style format with each entry displayed in an individual box and the boxes arranged in columns, scrolling vertically. To create a view that allows this sort of "business card" format, what type of Layout Viewer do you need to specify in the View Properties?
A. Tiled
B. Boxed
C. Vertical
D. Composite
Answer: A

10. Victor has a Movie Rental Notes application with a Movie Inventory view. The database is not full-text indexed, and users are complaining about the long search times when they attempt to search the database. How can Victor prevent searching in this database if no full-text index has been created?
A. Select the don’t allow simple search option in the Database properties.
B. Deselect the allow simple search option in the Movie Inventory view properties.
C. Deselect the allow simple search option in the Movie Inventory document properties.
D. Select the ponfirm full text index before search option in the Database properties.
Answer: A

11. The new Rich Text Lite "Thumbnail" input type allows you to specify the height and width of the thumbnail image, along with what other attribute?
A. File type
B. Color depth
C. Image resolution
D. Attachment name
Answer: D

12. Myrtle is modifying the design of a View in a Notes database, so it can update a published Property that the other components in a Composite Application can respond to. Where does she write code that updates a Property?
A. In a view action
B. In the OnSelect event of the view
C. In the QueryModeChange event of the view
D. In the Initialize subroutine of the Global section of the view
Answer: B

13. Beatrice created a new Composite Application database in the Notes 8 client, but when she opens it up she sees a grey page that says "This Application page does not contain any content." What does she have to do next?
A. Click the menu option "View – Design" to open the database in Domino Designer to edit the Composite Application definition.
B. Click the menu option "Actions – Edit Application" to open the database in the Composite Application Editor to edit the Composite Application definition.
C. Double-click the grey page to open the database in the Composite Application Editor to edit the Composite Application definition.
D. Right-click the grey page to open the database in Domino Designer to edit the Composite Application definition.
Answer: B

14. Linda has selected the database property Support Response Thread History for her Call Log application. When she looks at the document fields in the Document Properties dialog box, she notices a new field has been added to each new document. What field does Linda see?
A. $TUA
B. $REF
C. $SRTH
D. $REF2
Answer: A

15. Bonnie has a Customer view in her application that has the following columns (in order): Customer Name, Customer Address, Customer Phone, Customer Comments, Last Contacted. She would like to maximize the amount of column space for the Customer Comments field. How would Bonnie accomplish this in Designer?
A. Select the "Maximum Width" property for the Customer Comment column.
B. Set the Height indicator to 9 lines for the Customer Comments column.
C. Select the extend to use available window width property for the Customer Comment column
D. Add the column name to the xtend to use available window width property in the Customer view.
Answer: C

16. Thomas has utilized the right-click menu option feature in his application to show his custom actions. He would like to present users with just the custom actions when they right-click with their mouse. How can he accomplish this?
A. Remove the default menu items from the Action Bar of the view.
B. Deselect include action in Action Bar in the Action button properties of the view.
C. Deselect show default items in right-mouse menu in the Action Bar properties of the view.
D. Select emove default items in right-mouse menu?in the Action button properties of the view.
Answer: C

17. Kyle is designing a Composite Application that can send a user name from a form to a view, by clicking a button on the form. He knows he wants to define a Wiring property called ReceiveUserName that will be used when the view is receiving a user name string that is published by the form. When he opens the Property Broker Editor to define "ReceiveUserName", what does he define it as?
A. Type
B. Action
C. Event
D. Property
Answer: B

18. Timmy is designing a View and he wants to use the new "Split Action Button" option for one of his Actions. He creates an Action with sub-actions and checks the "Display as split button" box, but the Action doesn’t work as a Split button when he looks at the view in his Notes client. Why is this?
A. Split Action buttons work only for Shared Actions.
B. Split Action buttons work only for Forms.
C. Split Action buttons work only for Composite Applications.
D. The "Enable Advanced Action Bar" setting in the View properties has not been checked.
Answer: C

19. When Bert is designing his Composite Application, he wants to have a Notes view that publishes a UserName property to another view and also to a Notes form that is open in edit mode. How does he do this?
A. He simply uses the Composite Application Editor to wire all three components together.
B. He creates one Composite Application that wires the two views together, and then a second Composite Application that incorporates the first one, with the first view wired to the form.
C. Because each component can only publish a single property, he has to wire the first view publish the user name to the second view, and then wire the second view to publish the user name to the form.
D. Because he can publish a property only to a single component, he has to make his first view publish two properties (e.g. UserName1 and UserName2) that both have the same data, so that one of the properties is wired to the second view and the other is wired to the form.
Answer: A

20. Scott has just created a new NSF-based Composite Application. He has added two components to his application and is about to close the Composite Application Editor (CAE). What does he need to do if he now wants to see how his Composite Application appears in the user interface?
A. Scott will not be able to open the Composite Application within the user interface yet. The database launch properties must first be set to "Launch as Composite Application".
B. Nothing. The CAE is opened from within the Composite Application. When Scott exits the CAE, he is automatically presented again with the Composite Application, open in the user interface.
C. Scott will not be able to open the Composite Application within the user interface yet. He will first need to open the Composite Application using Domino Designer and set the Wiring Properties.
D. When Scott exits the CAE, he is back at the Notes Workspace, just as when exiting other NSF-based applications. Double-click on the Composite Application’s icon on the Workspace to open it in the user interface.
Answer: B

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免费70-216学习资料

Filed under: Microsoft — admin @ 2:22 am

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Implementing and Administering a Microsoft Windows 2000 Network Infrastructure 认证作为全球IT领域专家 Microsoft 热门认证之一，是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。如果你正在准备 70-216 考试，为 Microsoft Implementing and Administering a Microsoft Windows 2000 Network Infrastructure认证做最后冲刺，又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟， Examsoon希望能助你成功。

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优点：不需下载安装软件，方便用户打印和携带，但也带来了可随意制的弊端，因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的70-216题库，一经发现立即取消其升级资格，且不予退款。
缺点：不具备测试模式，通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

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部分最新免费70-216认证题库：（您也可以联系我下载部分最新70-216考试题库）

　
　
Exam : Microsoft 70-216
Title : Implementing and Administering a Microsoft Windows 2000 Network Infrastructure

1. You are the administrator of your company’s network. The network consists of five subnets that are connected by a BOOTP relay-enabled router. There are 50 Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,000 Windows 2000 Professional client computers distributed approximately evenly across the five subnets. There are also 25 UNIX servers and 100 DHCP-enabled network printers on the network.
You want to accomplish the following goals:
?The correct assignment of IP addresses to each client computer on each subnet will be automated.
?Address conflicts between client computers and servers will be prevented.
?Correct scope options will be applied to each client computer on each subnet.
?Client computers that are not in use will be prevented from keeping an IP address for more than three days.
?Each network printer will always receive the same IP address.
You take the following actions:
?Install the DHCP Server
service on a Windows 2000 Server computer.
?Create five scopes, each containing the address range for a specific subnet.
?In the DHCP console, set optional client configurations in the Server Options container.
?Exclude the range of addresses in use by the network printers.
Which result or results do these actions produce? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The correct assignment of IP addresses to each client computer on each subnet is automated.
B. Address conflicts between client computers and servers are prevented.
C. Correct scope options are applied to each client computer on each subnet.
D. Client computers that are not in use are prevented from keeping an IP address for more than three days.
E. Each network printer always receives the same IP address.
Answer: A

2. You are the administrator of your company’s network. Your network is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button)
Your users utilize an application that performs frequent DNS queries. The DNS Server service is installed on all three servers. Srv3 is the only DNS server that has access to the Internet.
You want to configure your DNS servers so that they function with a minimum of administrative intervention. What should you do? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Srv1 and Srv2 to forward.
B. Configure Srv3 to forward.
C. Disable recursion on Srv1 and Srv2.
D. Disable recursion on Srv3.
E. Enable recursion on Srv1 and Srv2.
F. Enable recursion on Srv3.
Answer: AC

3. You are the administrator of one standard primary DNS server and two standard secondary DNS servers in a Windows 2000 domain.
There are no other DNS servers on the network. The domain includes Windows 2000 Professional computers and Windows 98 computers.
The DNS zone for the Windows 2000 domain is configured to allow dynamic updates. All three DNS servers are located on domain controllers. You want client computers to be able to register with any DNS server.
What should you do?
A. Change the zone type of the DNS zone for the Windows 2000 domain on all three DNS servers to Active Directory Integrated.
B. Change the settings on the standard primary DNS server to notify the two standard secondary DNS servers when the zone is updated.
C. Change the settings on the standard primary DNS server to allow zone transfers to only the two standard secondary DNS servers.
D. Change the dynamic update option on the standard primary DNS server to allow only secure updates.
Answer: A

4. You administer the network segment used by your company’s sales department. This department employs 50 salespeople, who use portable computers. Each business day, a maximum of 25 salespeople work on-site.
The remaining salespeople work remotely.
Your network segment includes one DHCP server running Windows 2000 Server. All the portable computers are DHCP clients. The DHCP server is configured with the characteristics shown in the following table.
Your department hires 20 new salespeople and issues portable computers to them. The new salespeople will work on-site for several months, and then begin working remotely. However, none of these new users can connect to the network.
They receive an error message indicating that their computers cannot obtain IP addresses.
You need to enable the new salespeople to connect to the network. Your solution must prevent the connection problem from happening again.
Your solution must also avoid disrupting network communications for existing network users and minimize network traffic associated with DHCP.
What should you do?
A. Delete the existing IP address leases from the DHCP server.
　Increase the setting for conflict detection attempts to 3 .
　Decrease the lease duration to eight hours.
B. Decrease the lease duration to one day. Increase the setting for conflict detection attempts to 2 .
C. On the new salespeople’s computers, run the ipconfig /release command and then the ipconfig /renew command.
D. Disable dynamic update of DNS records. Decrease the lease duration to eight hours.
　Run the ipconfig /renew command on the new salespeople’s computers.
Answer: A

5. You are the administrator of your company’s network. Your network is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
On your Windows 2000 Server computer named Srv1, you install Client Service for NetWare and NWLink with the default settings. You perform these installations to access files stored on your company’s NetWare servers. From Srv1 you can connect to Srv2. You can also connect to NetWare1 and NetWare3, but you cannot connect to NetWare2 and NetWare4. NetWare2 and NetWare4 run different versions of NetWare than NetWare1 and NetWare3.
You want to configure Srv1 to connect to all the NetWare servers. What should you do?
A. Set the adapter to Manual frame type detection and add the frame type of each NetWare server.
B. Manually configure the Internal Network Number to 00000000.
C. Enable direct hosting of Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX).
D. Install File and Print Services for NetWare.
Answer: A

6. You are the administrator of your company’s network, which consists of a single site. The network includes 30 computers running Windows 2000 Server and 1,500 computers running Windows 2000 Professional. A computer named WINS1, which is located in your Information Technology (IT) department, is configured as a WINS server with default settings.
Your company also includes a human resources (HR) department, whose computers are located behind a firewall to maintain security. For redundancy, you install a second WINS server named WINS2 in the HR department, accepting all default settings.
You configure both WINS servers to use the automatic partner configuration.
Later, you review the event logs on the WINS servers. You find the following event message, which was logged on WINS1 during replication.
Event ID: 4202
Source: WINS
Description: Attempt to connect to the remote WINS server with address 10.1.1.2 returned with an error.
Check to see that the remote WINS server is running and available.
You confirm that both WINS servers are functioning correctly and that their resources are available. How should you correct this problem?
A. Place static entries for each WINS server in the database of the other WINS server.
B. Manually configure replication with WINS1 as push partner and WINS2 as pull partner.
C. Configure WINS1 and WINS2 as push/pull partners with each other.
D. Enable forwarding of TCP port 42 (Host Name Server) on the firewall.W
Answer: D

7. You are the administrator of your company’s network, which includes three subnets. Each subnet contains 200 Windows 2000 Professional computers and five Windows 2000 Server computers. One Windows 2000 Server computer on one subnet runs the DNS Server service. The DNS server is configured to allow dynamic updates. All computers on the network have static IP addresses.
You add two UNIX servers named IW1 and IW2 to the network. Both servers host identical content for your internal Web site.
When you try to access the internal Web site from your client computer, your Web browser displays this message: "Can’t find server or DNS error."
However, when you enter the IP addresses of the two Web servers in your browser, you can view the Web site.
You need to ensure that you can access each internal Web server by its name. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Add one A (host) record to the DNS server for IW1. Add another for IW2.
B. Add one CNAME (canonical name) record named WWW to the DNS server for IW1.
　Add another CNAME record named WWW for IW2.
C. Disable dynamic updates on the DNS server.
D. Run the ipconfig /flushdns command on your client computer.
E. Run the ipconfig /registerdns command on your client computer.
Answer: AD

8. You are the administrator of your company’s network.
Your company has a Windows 2000 domain installed.
You installed the DHCP Server service, but you did not configure it.
Andrew is an employee at your company who belongs only to the Domain User group. Andrew will be responsible for deciding where DHCP servers should be placed on the network. When Andrew tries to authorize his server, the server displays the following error message: "Access denied."
Andrew needs to have the ability to authorize only DHCP servers. What should you do?
A. Add Andrew to the Schema Admins group.
B. Add Andrew to the DHCP Administrators group.
C. Delegate Control to Andrew on the NetServices system container in Active Directory.
D. Delegate Control to Andrew on the Query-Policies system container in Active Directory.
Answer: C

9. You are the administrator of the contoso.com domain. Your network environment consists of a main office and two branch offices. The branch offices are connected to the main office by 256-Kbps leased lines. You have a single DNS zone, and all DNS servers are located at the main office. All servers on your network are running Windows 2000 Server. Your network is not connected to the Internet.
Users report that response times are extremely slow when they attempt to access intranet resources. When you monitor the network, you discover that DNS name resolution queries are generating heavy traffic across the WAN links.
You want to accomplish the following goals:
?Name resolution traffic across the WAN links will be reduced.
?Response times for name resolution queries will be reduced.
?Administrative overhead for DNS maintenance will be minimized.
?Current DNS namespace design will be maintained.
You take the following actions:
?Increase the refresh interval for zone transfers.
?For each branch office, create a new Windows 2000 domain in the same tree as the first domain.
?Install a DNS server and create a new standard primary DNS zone for each new Windows 2000 domain.
?Configure each DNS server to forward requests to the other DNS servers on the network.
?Add resource records for each office’s local intranet resources to the local zone files.
?Configure client computers in the branch offices to query their local DNS servers only.
Which result or results do these actions produce? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Name resolution traffic across the WAN links is reduced.
B. Response times for name resolution queries are reduced.
C. Administrative overhead for DNS maintenance is minimized.
D. Current DNS namespace design is maintained.
Answer: AC

10. You are the administrator of a Windows 2000 network. The network consists of a Windows 2000 Server computer named ServerA and 30 Windows 2000 Professional computers.
ServerA has a permanent cable modem connection to the Internet.
To allow all Windows 2000 Professional computers to receive IP multicast traffic from the Internet, you install and configure the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) routing protocol on ServerA.
You have not defined any input or output packet filters on the network interface on ServerA.
The configuration of the interfaces of the IGMP routing protocol is shown in the following window.
Users on the network report that they are unable to receive IP multicast traffic from IP multicasting sources on the Internet.
How should you configure ServerA to allow users to register to receive IP multicasting traffic?
A. Configure a multicast scope boundary that has an IP address of 224.0.0.0 and a mask of 224.0.0.0.
B. Configure the Cable Modem to Internet interface to run in IGMP proxy mode.
C. Configure the LAN interface to run in IGMP proxy mode.
D. Configure all interfaces of the IGMP routing protocol to listen to multicast heartbeat group 224.0.0.1.
Answer: B

11. You are the administrator of your company’s network, which consists of a single Windows 2000 domain. The network has a persistent connection to the Internet. The relevant portion of its configuration is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Your company employs mobile salespeople who use portable computers running Windows 98. To enable these users to access internal resources, you place a virtual private network (VPN) server named VPN1 outside your firewall. This server is a stand-alone Windows 2000 Server computer running Routing and Remote Access. The firewall is configured to allow inbound access from VPN1 only.
You configure PPTP ports on VPN1. Now you must configure packet filters. VPN1 must allow only VPN traffic on the Internet interface, and it must prevent non-VPN users from accessing internal resources. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Using the PPTP ports as the destination ports, create an input filter on VPN1.
　As the destination IP address, use the IP address of the external interface of VPN1.
B. Using the PPTP ports as the source ports, create an input filter on VPN1.
　As the source IP address, use the IP address of the external interface of VPN1.
C. Using the PPTP ports as the destination ports, create an input filter on VPN1.
　As the destination IP address, use the IP address of the internal interface of VPN1.
D. Using the PPTP ports as the source ports, create an output filter on VPN1.
　As the source IP address, use the IP address of the external interface of VPN1.
E. Using the PPTP ports as the destination ports, create an output filter on VPN1.
　As the destination IP address, use the IP address of the external interface of VPN1.
F. Using the PPTP ports as the source ports, create an output filter on VPN1.
　As the source IP address, use the IP address of the internal interface of VPN1.
Answer: AD

12. You are the network administrator for A. Datum Corporation. The relevant portion of your network configuration is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
For communication between the Los Angeles and Dallas offices, you implement and configure two virtual private network (VPN) servers, as shown in the following table.
Each server is configured with appropriate VPN ports and a demand-dial VPN interface to initiate a VPN connection to the other server.
When you try to initiate a connection from Dallas to Los Angeles, you receive no error messages and the connection succeeds.
However, when you try to initiate a connection from Los Angeles to Dallas, you receive the following error message: "An error occurred during connection of the interface. The encryption attempt failed because no valid certificate was found."
How should you correct this problem?
A. At LA-VPN, configure the demand-dial VPN connection to use L2TP only.
B. At LA-VPN, configure the demand-dial VPN connection to use PPTP only.
C. Configure both servers to use the Require encryption option on the connection.
D. Configure both servers to use the Optional encryption option on the connection.
Answer: B

13. You are the administrator of a Windows 2000 domain. The domain has a Windows 2000 member server computer named DeskA. Routing and Remote Access is enabled for remote access on DeskA.
Your company is organizing an industry trade show in a conference center. You have set up 15 desks and telephones in the conference area. During the conference, attendees will be allowed to dial in to your network by using any of the 15 telephones. Each telephone line has its own telephone number. The conference attendees can use their own portable computers to dial in.
When attendees dial in to DeskA, they do not need to specify a user name or password. However, you do not want to allow dial-in access from any telephone other than the 15 telephones in the conference area.
You enable unauthenticated access on the DeskA remote access server. You also create a remote access policy named Conference that allows unauthenticated access as the authentication method.
Attendees report that they are not able to dial in unless they specify a user name and password.
You want to ensure that attendees can dial in without specifying a user name and password. What should you do?
A. Create a user account named Conference Guest.
Configure Routing and Remote Access to use the Conference Guest account as the default user identity.
Configure the Conference Guest account to use the 15 phone numbers as Caller ID.
B. Create 15 user accounts named Conf-1, Conf-2, Conf-3, and so on through Conf-15.
　Specify a separate Caller ID phone number for each of the 15 users.
C. Create 15 user accounts that use each phone number as the user name.
　Configure Routing and Remote Access to use the calling number as the authentication identity.
D. Configure the Conference remote access policy so that it has a Calling-Station ID condition.
　Use the 15 phone numbers as the condition.
Answer: C

14. You are the administrator of your company’s network. Your network is configured in a Windows 2000 domain as shown in the following diagram.
Acct1 and Acct2 belong to the accounting department. Sales1 and Sales2 belong to the sales department. Production1 and Production2 belong to the production department. Manager1 belongs to the management department. The accounting department does not access the Internet.
You want to accomplish the following goals:
?All communications involving Acct1 and Acct2 will be encrypted.
?Internet communications will not be encrypted.
?Communications between the sales department and the management department will be encrypted.
?Performance overhead for encryption will be minimized.
You take the following actions:
?Create an organizational unit (OU) structure as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button .)
?Add Acct1 and Acct2 to the Acct OU.
?Add Sales1 and Sales2 to the Sales OU.
?Add all other computers to the Comp OU.
?Assign the default Secure Server IPSec Policy to the domain.
Which result or results do these actions produce? (Choose all that apply.)
A. All communications involving Acct1 and Acct2 are encrypted.
B. Internet communications are not encrypted.
C. Communications between the sales department and the management department are encrypted.
D. Performance overhead for encryption is minimized.
Answer: AC

15. You are the administrator of a Windows 2000 network. You want to create a DHCP scope for the 192.168.1.32/28 subnet. The computers on this subnet are running Windows 95, Windows 98, and Windows 2000.
You also have two UNIX computers on this subnet that will have static IP addresses. These UNIX computers will be assigned the two highest available IP addresses on the subnet. The subnet’s default gateway will be assigned the lowest available IP address on the subnet. The scope should only include the available addresses.
Which scope should you create on your DHCP server for this subnet?
A. 192.168.1.34 – 192.168.1.46
B. 192.168.1.34 – 192.168.1.44
C. 192.168.1.33 – 192.168.1.45
D. 192.168.1.34 – 192.168.1.61
E. 192.168.1.33 – 192.168.1.60
Answer: B

16. You are the network administrator for Woodgrove Bank. The network is configured as shown in Woodgrove Bank Network in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button .)
Prof1, Prof5, and Prof7 have their Preferred DNS server set to 172.16.34.130. The DNS server is configured as shown in DNS Window in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button .)
Each time Prof1 tries to ping Prof7, you receive the following error message: "Bad IP Address." Even after you restart Prof1, you continue to receive the error message.
What should you do?
A. Delete the Prof7 entry in the DNS server.
B. Delete the Prof1 entry in the DNS server.
C. Delete the Prof7 entry in the Hosts file on Prof1.
D. Delete the Prof7 entry in the Lmhosts file on Prof7.
E. Run the ipconfig /registerdns command on Prof1.
Answer: C

17. You are the administrator of your company’s network. Your network is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button .)
You investigate a report that administrators in the Dallas office have installed and are using Network Monitor. Your company allows only administrators in the Atlanta office to install and use Network Monitor.
You install Network Monitor on Prof1. You need to monitor how many copies of Network Monitor are currently running.
What should you do? (Choose two.)
A. On the Tools menu in Network Monitor, select Identify Network Monitor Users .
B. On the Options menu in Network Monitor, select Show Address Names .
C. On the Tools menu in Network Monitor, select Find Routers .
D. On the Display menu in Network Monitor, select Find all names .
E. Install Network Monitor on a computer on Segment B.
F. Permit all ports in the TCP/IP filter on the router.
Answer: AE

18. You are the administrator of your company’s network. The relevant portion of its configuration is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
All client computers run Windows 2000 Professional. RAS1 and Router1 run Windows 2000 Server and Routing and Remote Access. Internal users access both internal and external network resources every business day. Mobile users access internal and external network resources through RAS1 by means of an L2TP/IPSec tunnel.
Your company hires two contractors for a short-term assignment. These contractors need remote access to HTTP resources on your internal subnets. Their computers run Windows 98.
You reconfigure RAS1 to allow remote access by means of virtual private network (VPN) connections for the two contractors. To reduce network traffic through RAS1, you decide to prevent the contractors from using your network to access Internet resources. You configure a TCP/IP filter to drop all HTTP traffic connecting to RAS1.
Mobile users report that they can no longer access the Internet. The contractors report that they cannot connect to RAS1.
To correct these problems, you create a new external subnet named Contractor1 and place the contractors on it.
Which two additional actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. On RAS1, reconfigure the TCP/IP filter to drop all HTTP traffic originating from Contractor1.
B. On RAS1, remove the TCP/IP filter. Reconfigure your remote access policy to restrict access for the contractors.
C. On RAS1, remove the TCP/IP filter. Assign a custom IPSec policy requiring Kerberos authentication.
D. Configure the computers of the contractors to use PPTP for VPN connections.
E. Require the contractors to upgrade their computers to Windows 2000 Professional.
Answer: BE

19. You are the administrator of a Windows 2000 network. The network consists of a Windows 2000-based DHCP server, two Windows 2000-based DNS servers, a Windows 2000-based Routing and Remote Access server, and 60 Windows 2000 Professional portable computers. The network is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
The DHCP server has a scope that has an IP address range of 10.65.4.20 through 10.65.4.80 with subnet mask 255.255.255.0.
You want the portable computers to use the DNS server that has an IP address of 10.65.4.12 when they dial in to the Routing and Remote Access server. The Routing and Remote Access server gathers IP addresses from the DHCP server for distribution to the portable computers when the portable computers dial in.
You configure the DHCP scope so that it has an IP address of 10.65.4.12 for the DNS Servers scope option.
When users dial in to the network by using the portable computers, all portable computers receive the IP address of 10.65.4.13 for the DNS server.
How should you configure the network so that the portable computers will receive the IP address of 10.65.4.12 for the DNS server?
A. Configure the DHCP server to always register and update client computer information to contain the configured DNS server.
B. Configure the Routing and Remote Access server to use the LAN interface to obtain DHCP, DNS, and WINS addresses for dial-up client computers.
C. Configure the LAN interface of the Routing and Remote Access server to not use an IP address for the DNS server.
D. Enable the DHCP Relay Agent on the Internal interface of the Routing and Remote Access server.
　Configure the DHCP Relay Agent to use 10.65.4.1 as the IP address for the DHCP server.
Answer: D

20. You are the administrator of a Windows 2000 domain. The domain has four Windows 2000-based WINS servers.
You want to delegate the ability to create the four WINS servers’ performance logs to a domain user named Kim. You do not want Kim to be able to change the configuration of the four WINS servers. The performance logs for the WINS servers are created by using the Performance console.
How should you configure the network to accomplish this goal?
A. Add the user Kim to the Domain Local group named Wins Users.
B. Create a new Domain Local group named Performance Administrators.
　Add the user Kim to the Performance Administrators group.
C. On the four WINS servers, change the NTFS permissions on the System32Wins folder to include Read permission for user Kim.
D. On the four WINS servers, change the Registry permissions on the
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINESystemCurrentControlSetServicesWINS key to include Read permission for user Kim.
Answer: A

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2009年10月16日

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Exam : EMC E20-535
Title : EMC (r) Networked Storage – NS Implementation

1. You are performing a Data Mover failover test of server_2 at a time that will pose minimal impact to corporate users. After performing the failover, you verify that the standby Data Mover successfully mounts, exports all file systems, and takes over as server_2.
Five minutes after the failover, users begin reporting that they can no longer access some of their shares. After further investigation you find that, while most shares are accessible via the CIFS servers on server_2, all shares exported through the "finance1" CIFS server are inaccessible. You also learn that the "finance2" and "engineering1" CIFS servers on server_2 are working without problems.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The CIFS service was not started on the standby.
B. The CIFS service was not started for the "finance1" CIFS server.
C. The Ethernet switch has Etherchannel configured for the primary Data Mover connections but not the standby.
D. New disks were added to the storage array but were never added to the configuration database for the standby Data Mover.
Answer: C

2. What is a component of CIFS?
A. NIS
B. FTP
C. NFS
D. UNC
Answer: D

3. You are performing a Data Mover failover test of server_2 at a time that will pose minimal impact to corporate users. The Data Mover is used only to export CIFS shares.
What should be done to verify the failover was successful?
A.Check that all file systems were mounted using server_mount
Check that all file systems were exported using server_export
Verify that the CIFS service has started using server_cifs
Verify network connections using ping to ping the default gateway
B.Check that all file systems were exported using server_export
Verify that the CIFS service has started using server_cifs
Verify network connections by accessing all data from network clients
Verify access to CIFS shares as a new user
C.Check that all file systems were mounted using server_mount
Check that all file systems were exported using server_export
Verify that the CIFS service has started using server_cifs
Verify network connections using server_sysconfig and server_ifconfig
D.Check that all file systems were mounted using server_mount
Check that all file systems were exported using server_export
Verify that the CIFS service has started using server_cifs
Verify network connections using server_ping to ping the default gateway
Answer: B

4. You have received reports that performance of a Data Mover is extremely slow. What is a possible cause?
A. Data Mover failover
B. Duplicate IP addresses
C. Misconfigured VLAN membership of Data Mover ports
D. Speed and duplex mismatch between Data Mover and Ethernet switch
Answer: D

5. As shown below, you have configured network interfaces in the following order:
The default gateway is 10.127.76.1.
When issuing server_ping to the default gateway, which network device will transmit the ping?
A. cge0
B. cge1
C. cge2
D. cge3
Answer: D

6. An FSN device is configured with physical devices of dissimilar characteristics. What is the reason for implementing the "primary" option on this device?
A. To ensure that both paths are always active
B. To allow connectivity to dissimilar network switches
C. To ensure the best path is given priority for functionality
D. To prevent the primary path for automatically resuming on recovery
Answer: C

7. What is the path utilization in an FSN environment?
A. Uses a "Least Load" path selection
B. Uses a "Round Robin" path selection
C. Uses only one of the configured paths
D. Aggregates across all configured paths
Answer: C

8. When using a Symmetrix in a Fibre Channel environment, how is the Fibre Channel WWN of the FA determined?
A. Hardware manufacturer, system serial number, and FA slot ID
B. iSNS registration number, system serial number, and FA slot ID
C. Hardware manufacturer, system IP address, and FA serial number
D. iSNS registration number, system IP address, and FA serial number
Answer: A

9. What is a rule for a standby Data Mover configuration?
A. A standby can be created for a standby
B. File systems cannot be temporarily mounted on the standby
C. The standby must not have the same disk configuration as the primary
D. A Data Mover can perform the role of a primary and standby Data Mover at the same time
Answer: B

10. You are performing a Data Mover failover test of server_2 at a time that will pose minimal impact to corporate users. After performing the failover, you verify that the standby Data Mover successfully mounts, exports all file systems, and takes over as server_2.
Five minutes after the failover, users begin reporting that they can no longer access some of their shares. After further investigation you find that, while most shares are accessible via the CIFS servers on server_2, all shares exported through the "finance1" CIFS server are inaccessible. You also learn that the "finance2" and "engineering1" CIFS servers on server_2 are working without problems.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The CIFS service was not started on the standby Data Mover.
B. The CIFS service was not started for the "finance1" CIFS server.
C. New disks were added to the storage array but were never added to the configuration database for the standby Data Mover.
D. The network cable of the standby Data Mover, associated with the "finance1" CIFS server, is assigned to the incorrect VLAN.
Answer: D

11. By default, what modes are the ports running in a Fail Safe Networking environment (FSN)?
A. Active-Active
B. Active-Standby
C. Load Balanced
D. Primary-Secondary
Answer: B

12. A customer is establishing a link between their headquarters office and their remote sales office. Response to the remote office from the headquarters site is slow; however, response within the headquarters’ site is acceptable.
What could be a probable cause for this scenario?
A. Different network routes
B. Incorrect VLAN membership
C. High utilization of the Ethernet switches in the headquarters office
D. Poor network latency between headquarters and the remote office
Answer: D

13. What is a rule for a standby Data Mover configuration?
A. A standby for a standby is an unsupported configuration
B. File systems can be temporarily mounted on the standby
C. The standby does not have the same disk configuration as the primary
D. A Data Mover can perform the role of a primary and standby Data Mover at the same time
Answer: A

14. What is a rule for a standby Data Mover configuration?
A. A standby can be created for a standby
B. File systems can be temporarily mounted on the standby
C. The standby must have the same disk configuration as the primary
D. A Data Mover can perform the role of a primary and standby Data Mover at the same time
Answer: C

15. Which default protocol is used by a Data Mover for DNS functions?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. NFS
D. CIFS
Answer: A

16. What is the default MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) when creating an interface on a Celerra CGE (Copper Gigabit Ethernet) port?
A. 1024
B. 1500
C. 2048
D. 9000
Answer: B

17. What is a characteristic of Kerberos?
A. Uses access tokens to hold a user’s SID
B. Key Distribution Center manages the keys
C. Security encryption used by authentication protocols
D. Provides encryption of passwords sent to Domain controllers
Answer: B

18. You are configuring a new Data Mover for network access. What is the recommend configuration?
A. Set speed and duplex to auto negotiate
B. Set speed and duplex configuration to match the Ethernet switch ports
C. Start with speed and duplex settings of 10Mbs/half-duplex and increase if necessary
D. Set speed to the fastest supported setting for the Data Mover model and duplex to full
Answer: B

19. What accurately describes the process of adding a Data Mover to an NS-series Celerra?
A. The NS system must be powered off
B. The Control Station must be powered off
C. The Data Mover is added non-disruptively
D. The existing Data Mover must be powered off
Answer: C

20. An administrator finds that the Data Mover failover has not occurred although the administrator has a standby Data Mover configured. What is the possible cause for the problem?
A. Peer Power function is unavailable
B. Control Station has failed and is unavailable
C. Control Station is unable to detect a heartbeat
D. Control Station fibre connection to the backend is unavailable
Answer: B

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免费1Y0-308学习资料

Filed under: Citrix — admin @ 10:03 pm

最新1Y0-308考试题库

Examsoon最新1Y0-308认证真题，真题覆盖率达到90%以上。考不过全额退款保障，让您认证无忧。绝对真实来自Examsoon的高质量题库。

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1Y0-308学习资料

Examsoon
1Y0-308题库，不同于Testiinside 1Y0-308、certtinside 1Y0-308、Pass4side1Y0-308、Testking1Y0-308、Pass4sure1Y0-308的题库资料，是全球IT认证资料供应力量，以高科技的仿真效果，完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题，保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

Examsoon 1Y0-308 的优势

1Y0-308 考试是 Citrix 公司的 Citrix Access Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition: Administration 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的 1Y0-308 权威考试题库软件是 Citrix 认证厂商的授权产品，Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 1Y0-308考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

Citrix Access Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition: Administration 认证作为全球IT领域专家 Citrix 热门认证之一，是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。如果你正在准备 1Y0-308 考试，为 Citrix Citrix Access Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition: Administration认证做最后冲刺，又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟， Examsoon希望能助你成功。

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优点：具有学习模式，测试模式，线上自动升级
缺点：仅限固定电脑使用，不可打印为文本，只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式1Y0-308考试题库
优点：不需下载安装软件，方便用户打印和携带，但也带来了可随意制的弊端，因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的1Y0-308题库，一经发现立即取消其升级资格，且不予退款。
缺点：不具备测试模式，通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

Examsoon
部分最新免费1Y0-308认证题库：（您也可以联系我下载部分最新1Y0-308考试题库）

　
　
Exam : Citrix 1Y0-308
Title : Citrix Access Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition: Administration

1. Which two statements are true regarding licensing for a deployment that contains multiple Access Gateway appliances? (Choose two.)
A. One server is configured as the license server.
B. Each gateway appliance must contain its own license.
C. The primary gateway appliance serves as the license server.
D. The license server must be installed in the DMZ on a separate server.
Answer: AC

2. A Citrix Administrator wants to configure client tunnel resources for clients connecting through Access Gateway to the corporate network. What are three methods that the administrator could use to define network resources? (Choose three.)
A. UNC (e.g. \servershare)
B. IP address (e.g. 10.10.16.6)
C. FQDN (e.g. server.domain.comany.com)
D. IP address range (e.g. 10.10.16.1 – 10.16.6.255)
E. IP address with a subnet mask (e.g. 10.0.0.0/255.0.0.0)
Answer: BCE

3. When enabled, which action control allows users to retrieve email attachments as HTML content and to save attachments on their local devices?
A. Upload
B. Download
C. HTML Preview
D. Email Attachment
Answer: B

4. Scenario: A Network Administrator configured access for external employees connecting through an Access Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition implementation into the corporate network. These employees require access to documents in the corporate network. The administrator implemented a policy that will ensure that the employees open the documents using applications that are installed locally on their PCs. Which of the listed action controls did the administrator implement?
A. Access
B. Live Edit
C. Download
D. File Type Association
Answer: B

5. When using a Microsoft SQL Server for the configuration database of an access server farm, which two details must be specified during the initial configuration of the farm? (Choose two.)
A. The name of the SQL Server
B. The name of the access server farm
C. The FQDN of Access Gateway appliance
D. The name of a user account included in the Administrators Group
Answer: AB

6. Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is configuring multiple Web Interface sites and wants to grant users access to three sites through a single logon point. The users will also be using different credentials to log onto each of the sites. The administrator also wants to configure credential caching so that the users can store their credentials for each of the Web Interface sites once they authenticate for the first time.
In order to ensure that Workspace Control and credential caching are functioning properly after configuring the multiple Web Interface sites display, which two steps should the administrator perform? (Choose two.)
A. Associate each Presentation Server farm with its corresponding Web Interface site in Advanced Access Control.
B. Associate each Presentation Server farm with its corresponding logon point configured in Advanced Access Control.
C. Create a connection policy that enables Workspace Control so that Access Gateway can authenticate users to the access server farm.
D. Install a trusted certificate on the Advanced Access Control server hosting the Web Interface sites, so that Access Gateway can authenticate users to the farm.
Answer: AB

7. For an environment in which HTML Preview will be enabled for Microsoft Office, which task must be completed prior to installing the Advanced Access Control software?
A. The Citrix Activation Engine must be restarted.
B. A license must be installed on the license server.
C. Microsoft Word, Excel, Visio and PowerPoint must be installed on the server.
D. Microsoft Word, Excel, Visio, PowerPoint and Outlook must be installed on the server.
Answer: C

8. Scenario: An administrator would like to provide access to a Web Interface site through Advanced Access Control. The administrator would like the site to appear as the home page. What are the two required configurations for this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the site as the application with the highest priority.
B. Configure a logon point to display the navigation page as the home page.
C. Configure the web resource for Citrix Web Interface 4.2 or later to bypass web proxy URL rewriting.
D. Configure a published web resource with Citrix Web Interface 4.2 or later selected as the application type.
Answer: AD

9. When a user connects through Access Gateway, under which account is the endpoint analysis scans run?
A. The user that is logged on
B. The administrator for the local machine
C. The user who installed the client operating systems
D. The account of the user who installed the endpoint analysis client
Answer: A

10. Scenario: An environment has Access Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition implemented to provide access for the mobile workforce. Managers require access to email from company-issued Blackberry devices. All end-users access email through Outlook which is configured to download email from an Exchange server. The administrator is required to provide the mobile users with access to the web email resource. When defining the web email resource for this environment, which three steps are required? (Choose three.)
A. Update the %systemroot%system32MAPISVC.INF file on the Exchange server.
B. Specify that Microsoft Exchange will be used and then enable web-based access.
C. Provide the URL for the Exchange Server and specify the server as a new web application.
D. Update the %systemroot%system32MAPISVC.INF file on all the Advanced Access Control servers.
E. Select the email interface provided with Advanced Access Control and provide the URL of Exchange server.
Answer: BDE

11. Scenario: An administrator wants to provide access to a company intranet site from the access server farm. The home page for the intranet site includes several links to external web pages. The administrator wants to ensure that all links can be accessed through this resource. How can this be configured?
A. Create a filter that allows access to all the websites linked from the home page.
B. Enable URL rewriting to provide users access to the pages linked on the website.
C. Include all the web pages linked from the home page using a URL that contains a wildcard.
D. Within the New Web Resource Wizard add URLs for the home page and each page linked from the home page.
Answer: D

12. Which two steps are required when configuring email synchronization? (Choose two.)
A. A connection policy must be configured to allow users to launch the Secure Access Client.
B. An access policy must be associated with the email synchronization resource in order for users to synchronize their email.
C. An access policy filter must be associated with the email synchronization resource in order for users to synchronize their email.
D. A custom filter must be configured for the policy associated with the email synchronization resource to allow users to launch the Secure Access Client.
Answer: AB

13. Which three data could be used to configure network access through the Access Gateway appliance? (Choose three.)
A. The IP address of the destination LAN
B. The Subnet Mask of the destination LAN
C. The FQDN of the Access Gateway appliance
D. The IP address class of the destination network
E. The IP address of the Access Gateway appliance
F. The CIDR (Classless InterDomain Routing) addressing scheme
Answer: ABF

14. Which network adapter requires a static IP address when configuring internal access for Access Gateway in a single network interface?
A. Eth0 is the only network interface that can be used.
B. Eth1 is the only network interface that can be used.
C. Eth2 is the only network interface that can be used.
D. Eth3 is the only network interface that can be used.
Answer: A

15. What are two requirements for enabling access to file share resources from the default navigation page (Access Interface)? (Choose two.)
A. The file share must contain at least one file.
B. Permission to the file share must be granted in an access policy.
C. The file share must exist in the location specified when it was created as a resource.
D. Accessibility to the file server hosting the file share must be available to the Advanced Access Control servers in the network.
Answer: BD

16. Which two steps should an administrator take to remove an Access Gateway appliance from an Access Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition deployment? (Choose two.)
A. The administrator should execute the "Remove Access Gateway" task from the "Gateway Appliances" node in the Access Management Console.
B. The administrator should restart at least one Advanced Access Control server in the farm after configuring the Access Gateway appliance to be removed.
C. The administrator should configure the Access Gateway appliance server so that it no longer points itself to an Advanced Access Control server in the deployment.
D. The administrator should uncheck the "Access Gateway" role checkbox for the Access Gateway appliance to be removed in the "Manage Server Roles" dialog of the Access Management Console.
Answer: AC

17. What is true about a server-side scan?
A. They require the web client in order to run on client devices.
B. They scan client devices to determine if the client has the right browser type.
C. They do not require the endpoint analysis client software to run on client devices.
D. They scan client devices to identify if there are applications on those devices that require certain browser types and if the client has permissions to download the required browser type.
Answer: C

18. A Citrix Administrator wants to configure name resolution for Access Gateway. In which location can the administrator specify the DNS and WINS servers for Access Gateway?
A. Server Configuration Tool
B. DNS Management Console
C. Access Management Console
D. Access Gateway Administration Tool
Answer: D

19. Scenario: An administrator wants to scan client devices to ensure that all clients running either Windows XP or 2000 have the appropriate service pack installed. Newly acquired offices will obtain access to corporate resources through Access Gateway. These clients will be running on different operating system platforms. By configuring the rules for the endpoint analysis scan, the administrator can ensure that only those client devices meeting the minmum requirements will obtain full access to company resources.
What should the administrator do to ensure that client devices connecting through Access Gateway have the appropriate service pack level?
A. Configure two rules for the scan with client device locale conditions and the remote language selected.
B. Configure two rules for the scan with logon point conditions and the remote logon point added to the property value for the scan.
C. Configure two rules for the scan with operating system conditions and the respective service pack as the property values for the scan.
D. Configure two rules for the scan using another scan that looks for a particular file as a condition and the respective service pack as the property values for the scan.
Answer: C

20. Scenario: An administrator is implementing Access Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition. The implementation will be used primarily for mobile workers who may access resources from diverse client devices, which may be locked down and may not allow files such as client software to be downloaded. For this environment, which type of access should be given to the clients?
A. Direct access
B. VPN Client access
C. Kiosk Mode access
D. Browser-only access
Answer: D

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免费000-876学习资料

Filed under: IBM — admin @ 6:41 pm

最新000-876考试题库

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购买000-876考试题库请认准Examsoon标志！切勿因贪便宜而造成不必要的损失和遗憾。下载题库及任何000-876问题请与我站管理员联系！

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000-876题库购买时请一定要认准Examsoon标志，世界第一IT认证资料服务提供商中国服务中心。

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000-876学习资料

Examsoon
000-876题库，不同于Testiinside 000-876、certtinside 000-876、Pass4side000-876、Testking000-876、Pass4sure000-876的题库资料，是全球IT认证资料供应力量，以高科技的仿真效果，完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题，保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

Examsoon 000-876 的优势

000-876 考试是 IBM 公司的 IBM Tiboli Access Manager for e-business V6 Implementation 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的 000-876 权威考试题库软件是 IBM 认证厂商的授权产品，Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 000-876考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

IBM Tiboli Access Manager for e-business V6 Implementation 认证作为全球IT领域专家 IBM 热门认证之一，是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。如果你正在准备 000-876 考试，为 IBM IBM Tiboli Access Manager for e-business V6 Implementation认证做最后冲刺，又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟， Examsoon希望能助你成功。

1、Examsoon考题大师000-876试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用本站的考试题库参加000-876 考试，我们保证您一次轻松通过考试；

3、Examsoon实行“一次不过全额退款”承诺。如果您购买我们000-876的考题，只要不是首次通过，凭盖有PROMETRIC或VUE考试中心钢印的考试成绩单，我们将退还您购买000-876考题大师的全部费用，绝对保证您的利益不受到任何的损失；

4、本站000-876题库根据000-876考试的变化动态更新，在厂家考题每次发生变化后，我们承诺2天内更新000-876题库。确保000-876考题的覆盖率始终都在95％以上；我们提供2种 000-876 考题大师版本供你选择。

5、软件版本000-876 考试题库
优点：具有学习模式，测试模式，线上自动升级
缺点：仅限固定电脑使用，不可打印为文本，只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式000-876考试题库
优点：不需下载安装软件，方便用户打印和携带，但也带来了可随意制的弊端，因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的000-876题库，一经发现立即取消其升级资格，且不予退款。
缺点：不具备测试模式，通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

Examsoon
部分最新免费000-876认证题库：（您也可以联系我下载部分最新000-876考试题库）

　
　
Exam : IBM 000-876
Title : IBM Tiboli Access Manager for e-business V6 Implementation admin

1. Administrators are trying to access junction resources and they are denied access between midnight and 8AM. Which step will allow only these administrators access during these hours?
A. Replace the POP on the junction resources and remove the time of day range.
B. Update the WebSEAL configuration file to allow administrator access to back-end Web servers.
C. Place the administrators in a group, and give that group B permission on an ACL attached to the junction resources.
D. Place the administrators in a group, and place that group into a second POP attached to the junction resources that allows them access during these hours.
Answer: C

2. Which command is used to map user sean to resource mozart for SSO?
A. rsrccreate add sean rsrcname mozart
B. rsrccreate create mozart_group add sean rsrcname mozart
C. rsrccred add mozart rsrctype mozart_group set -rsrcuser sean
D. rsrccred create mozart rsrcuser mozart_user rsrcpwd mozart_password rsrctype web user sean
Answer: D

3. Which attribute is defined in a POP?
A. iv-user
B. iv-cred
C. user and group names
D. IP address/authentication method
Answer: D

4. Given the default IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business password policy, which password is valid?
A. tiVoli1
B. t1v0l199
C. tiVoli-999
D. t1vol1–99
Answer: D

5. Which IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business package must be installed on a machine that is running the Administration API?
A. ADK
B. policy server
C. runtime services
D. Web Portal Manager
Answer: C

6. What is the correct syntax for creating a transparent path junction on the default WebSEAL instance to proxy the remote directory of /docs/html on the web.ibm.com host?
A. server task default-webseald-webseal01.ibm.com create -t tcp -h web.ibm.com -x /docs
B. server task default-webseald-webseal01.ibm.com create -t tcp -h web.ibm.com -T /docs
C. server task default-webseald-webseal01.ibm.com create -t tcp -h web.ibm.com -x /docs/html
D. server task default-webseald-webseal01.ibm.com create -t tcp -h web.ibm.com -T /docs/html
Answer: C

7. What junction option is used to specify the FSSO configuration file?
A. -F config-file-path
B. -J config-file-path
C. -S config-file-path
D. -T config-file-path
Answer: C

8. What directory contains CARS installation error logs?
A. /var/cars/log
B. /opt/cars/event/logs
C. /var/PolicyDirector/log
D. /opt/IBM/Tivoli/CommonAudit/server/logs
Answer: D

9. Which utility is used to restore critical IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business data?
A. pdmgr
B. pdadmin
C. pdbackup
D. pdrestore
Answer: C

10. What has to be set to change IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business (TAMeb) audit level?
A. audit serviceability option in the TAMeb routing file
B. logaudit=yes in the auditing-configuration stanza of iv.conf file
C. POP audit level attribute using the pdadmin pop modify command
D. Web Portal Manager audit tab value to specify one of the three audit levels – permit, deny, error
Answer: C

11. Which WebSEAL configuration option will ensure that an initial request is routed to the correct junctioned Web server, even if the junction is missing from the URL?
A. URL redirect
B. URL rewriting
C. -j junction option
D. a junction mapping table association
Answer: D

12. Which command will restore all WebSEAL files from BACKUP_FILE?
A. pdbackup -action restore -file BACKUP_FILE
B. pdrestore -action verify -file BACKUP_FILE
C. pdweb WEBSEAL_INSTANCE -restore BACKUP_FILE
D. pdadmin server task WEBSEAL_INSTANCE restore ile BACKUP_FILE
Answer: A

13. What is one key item to enable sharing a session between different replica sets in the same session realm?
A. The session configuration parameters must be identical.
B. The security servers must all be in the same DNS domain.
C. The sessions must be established simultaneously from the first login.
D. The session key of the first session must be identical to the replica server.
Answer: B

14. When accessing the default WebSEAL root over SSL after an install, what is displayed after a successful authentication?
A. IBM HTTP Server welcome page
B. Web Portal Manager junction creation panel
C. IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business logo
D. error message stating that the user is Forbidden
Answer: C

15. Which command is used to refresh the IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business object namespace identified using dynamic URL capability?
A. server task <server-name> dynurl update
B. server task <server-name> dynurl refresh
C. server task <server-name> update namespace
D. There is no command. Modification of the configuration file is all that is needed.
Answer: A

16. What is the correct command to re-enable user account, usera, which has been locked out due to a 3 strikes violation?
A. user modify usera lock-out no
B. user modify usera account-valid yes
C. user modify usera account lock-out no
D. user modify usera account-valid unlock
Answer: B

17. How are IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business users and groups logically separated within a single policy server?
A. by creating multiple object spaces
B. by installing multiple user registries
C. by creating multiple secure domains
D. by installing multiple policy proxy servers
Answer: C

18. For an ACL attached to a WebSEAL junction, which entry allows group eng to execute a CGI program on the junctioned server?
A. user eng Tx
B. user eng Tc
C. group eng Tr
D. group eng Tl
Answer: C

19. What functionality does external authentication interface (EAI) provide that can not be done with external authentication C API?
A. ability to authenticate the user with a custom token
B. ability to generate custom user credentials for a given user
C. ability to interact with the end user to request additional information
D. ability to do a write make calls to a centrally managed authorization service
Answer: C

20. Customer XYZ has multiple Microsoft IIS servers in its DMZ. For business and technical reasons, they are unable to install a reverse proxy within the DMZ. Which IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business (TAMeb) component would address this requirement?
A. TAMeb WebSEAL
B. TAMeb policy proxy server
C. TAMeb plug-in for Web servers
D. TAMeb session management server
Answer: C

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