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2009年09月30日

最新HP0-264认证考试题库下载

Filed under: HP — admin @ 9:40 pm

最新HP0-264考试题库

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:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新HP0-264考试题库)

 
 
Exam : HP HP0-264
Title : Servicing HP Monochrome LaserJet Printers, High-End

1. What kind of paper jams would you expect on a LJ8XXX if a piece of paper gets stuck under tray 3?
A. registration jab
B. input jam
C. output jam
D. duplex jam
Answer: D

2. What language personalities are supported on the LJ8150? Select TWO.
A. PCL6
B. PCL5c
C. PCL5e
D. Adobe PostScript
Answer: AC

3. A 50.X error is displayed on the control panel of a LJ8XXX. Which part of the printer would you check first?
A. main motor assembly
B. paper input assembly
C. fusing assembly
D. envelope feeder
Answer: C

4. When printing from a Windows-based application, the paper source is specified on the LJ8XXX by the _________________________.
A. print job
B. print control panel
C. amount of paper in the tray
D. tray 1 settings
Answer: A

5. You are troubleshooting a jam problem on a LaserJet 9000 printer. You have already verified that the jam occurs continuously. What is the next step?
A. print a configuration page
B. perform a drum rotation functional check
C. display the event log
D. perform a paper path test
Answer: C

6. What functions are monitored by the Switch/Sensor PCA on the LJ8XXX? SELECT TWO..
A. registration
B. fuser exit jams
C. paper size sensing
D. front/top cover open
Answer: BD

7. How do you perform an engine test on the LaserJet 9000?
A. press and hold "CANCEL JOB" while powering the printer on
B. perform service test
C. press engine test button
D. select engine test from the Control Panel
Answer: C

8. Toner smears on a LaserJet 9000 series printer. Which do you do first?
A. clean the inside of the printer or use the cleaning page
B. replace the print cartridge
C. print a few more pages to see if the problem corrects itself
D. verify the fuser setting for the media used
Answer: C

9. The customer is experiencing a "TONER OUT" message after replacing the toner cartridge. What other component may be involved?
A. fuser assembly
B. laser scanner
C. DC controller PCB
D. high voltage power supply
Answer: D

10. On the LJ8XXX, the engine test can only be performed from which tray?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

11. You are servicing a LJ8XXX printer that is presenting a defect on the page at consistent intervals. What do you use to troubleshoot this issue?
A. defect analysis tool
B. print the engine test page
C. print the PQ troubleshooting page
D. repetitive defect ruler
Answer: D

12. On the LJ8XXX what must be removed first before the fusing assembly can be removed?
A. Diverter Assembly
B. Duplex Assembly
C. Face up Bin
D. Delivery Assembly
Answer: B

13. The stapler/stacker accessory is not working correctly on a LaserJet 9000 printer. Which diagnostics tests do you use to find the problem? SELECT TWO.
A. device service mode
B. individual motor test
C. face-up bin full sensor test
D. accumulator calibration test
Answer: AC

14. The Maintenance Kit for the LJ8XXX printer includes _______________. Select THREE.
A. toner cartridge
B. transfer roller
C. pickup rollers
D. fuser
E. registration roller
F. feed/separation rollers
Answer: BDF

15. The DC Controller PCA on the LJ8XXX is responsible for _____________. Select TWO.
A. raster image creation
B. EIO communication
C. paper motion monitoring
D. motors and fans
Answer: CD

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免费000-665学习资料

Filed under: IBM — admin @ 6:19 pm

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Examsoon
000-665题库,不同于Testiinside 000-665、certtinside 000-665、Pass4side000-665、Testking000-665、Pass4sure000-665的题库资料,是全球IT认证资料供应力量,以高科技的仿真效果,完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题,保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

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000-665 考试是 IBM 公司的 Architecture design of soa solution 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的 000-665 权威考试题库软件是 IBM 认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 000-665考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

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优点:具有学习模式,测试模式,线上自动升级
缺点:仅限固定电脑使用,不可打印为文本,只能PC阅读

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缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

Examsoon
部分最新免费000-665认证题库
:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新000-665考试题库)

 
 
Exam : IBM 000-665
Title : Architecture design of soa solution

1. A company has challenged the SOA solution designer to articulate the ROI on the SOA investment. Which of the following propositions best reflects the realities of SOA engagements?
A. Implementing SOA will reduce the work load of business analysts.
B. SOA will quickly reduce the costs of help desk and maintenance.
C. Once several applications have been implemented in SOA, the development staff needs will decline.
D. The business agility realized from implementing common components will offset the initial investment.
Answer: D

2. SOA is certainly not the only choice for all projects and may be less than optimal for some situations. Which of the following best describes a customer environment where SOA might be applicable?
A. A business that revolves around extremely high-volume, high-performance, synchronous, and real-time transactions.
B. A homogeneous IT environment with single programming model, using common middleware
C. A heterogeneous IT environment with a variety of programming models, tools and platforms
D. A stable application environment with a small percentage of IT budget assigned to integration activities.
Answer: C

3. Which of the following represents the best reason that an organizational assessment is important in an SOA project?
A. Because an organization may have multiple IT departments.
B. Because the IT department must change its development processes.
C. Because SOA will impact processes that cross organizational boundaries.
D. Because embracing SOA requires the enterprise to restructure its management.
Answer: C

4. An SOA design team is working on identifying a series of services that need to be enabled in their organizational SOA.
What would be a valid design consideration?
A. Replace existing APIs (Application Programming Interfaces) with Web Services.
B. Rewrite all existing applications as Web Services that can now be delivered as part of the organizational SOA.
C. A number of existing applications can be combined together by wrapping techniques to be delivered as Web Services.
D. Leverage business analysis and business modeling outputs to align services to be delivered with business functionality.
Answer: D

5. A leading car rental company has decided to expand to provide limousine and chauffeur services to clients. Through acquisition, the company now faces complex integration of multiple IT systems in order to achieve its business goals. How can IT technology standards facilitate that integration?
A. Each IT system may expose key business functions as services that are compliant with service-related technology standards to facilitate interoperability.
B. Web service standards must be introduced for clients to interact more cleanly with the expanded company. SOAP messages will facilitate enhanced customer service.
C. Integration using a message hub will provide the necessary support for business goals.
D. WS-Resource standards will provide the support needed to integrate the acquired IT systems and provide the foundation for further expansion.
Answer: A

6. As part of a SOA project, a company begins the process of service identification by using top-down analysis to identify and compose the flow of its relevant business processes and subprocesses.
Which of the following IBM SOA Foundation offerings is most appropriate to use for these activities?
A. IBM WebSphere Business Modeler
B. IBM Rational Method Composer
C. IBM Rational Software Architect
D. IBM Rational Application Developer
Answer: A

7. A companys IT department has a number of legacy EIS systems which provide functionality in its different lines of business. As part of its SOA strategy, the company wants to reuse the existing capabilities of these legacy systems across lines of business. A pure bottom-up approach is used exclusively to design services based on the functionality of the existing systems. What is the most likely result of this service design approach?
A. Application clients must use J2C adapters or JAX-RPC to access the resulting services.
B. The resulting services are composed into business processes by the various lines of business.
C. Some of the resulting service interfaces are too fine-grained to meet the reuse needs of the various lines of business.
D. The resulting service interfaces expose a common data model.
Answer: C

8. An SOA solution designer is addressing non-functional requirements for an SOA project that has been suffering from performance issues. Which of the following should be included?
A. Performance and platform
B. Total-cost-of-ownership and quality
C. Security and error handling
D. Response time and scalability
Answer: D

9. A customer hires an SOA solution designer to design a User Interface(UI) component for their SOA-based application. The customer has a requirement that says that the UI component must be ready to be exposed as a Web Service. Which of the following is ideally suited to meet this requirement?
A. UI using JSF
B. UI using HTML
C. UI using DHTML
D. UI using Portlets
Answer: D

10. An SOA solution has been architected to provide reservations capability for a leading travel agency and their business partners. Several design problems have emerged as service descriptions are defined. Which two of the following design guidelines are best to apply?
A. Service interfaces must be compliant with WS-I best practices to maximize interoperability between service providers and consumers.
B. Service interfaces must be versioned and contain no more than one operation.
C. SOAP messages and SOAP headers are always included in WSDL descriptions.
D. SCA modules must contain no more than one service import or export definition.
E. Ideally, service implementations would be stateless to maximize availability and scalability of the operational infrastructure.
Answer: AE

11. Which of the following statements best represents a case for an SOA?
A. An enterprise wants to standardize CRUD data services for their geographically distributed databases.
B. An online retailer is experiencing performance issues during the heavy shopping season.
C. A business wants to reduce the time to market for new products and services by leveraging existing applications and improving collaboration from partners.
D. An enterprise wants to standardize all data exchange using XML.
Answer: C

12. Which two of the following are objectives of an SOA assessment?
A. Assess the architecture for service re-use potential and document observed gaps between existing components, services and infrastructure.
B. Develop a holistic view of services aligned by the business portfolio of products and services.
C. Identify required tools and methods for the transformation environment.
D. Understanding the clients business and technical mandates.
E. Identify and specify services and components.
Answer: AD

13. Compliance with government regulations remains at the top of many CEOs list of must have functions. One aspect of compliance is providing a clear audit trail of who did what and when. What SOA technique would most help realize this requirement?
A. Decompose all business processes into a collection of services for agility and reuse.
B. Maximize legacy reuse by wrapping existing transactions with services.
C. Allow for service intermediaries through the use of an Enterprise Service Bus (ESB).
D. Leverage open standards to represent software assets as services for maximum interoperability with external systems.
Answer: C

14. While SOA has broad business value, selecting the right project to get started is important. Which of the following business issues best aligns with an initial SOA project?
A. Focusing on short term IT cost reduction
B. Transforming a core, complex set of applications
C. Automating a significant business process
D. Breaking down strong organizational silos
Answer: C

15. When would the application of the WS-Addressing specification NOT be relevant in a SOA solution?
A. When Web service applications need to exchange potentially large text and binary data, including GIF and JPEG files.
B. When Web service applications need to exchange messages using a publish/subscribe integration pattern.
C. When Web service applications need to exchange messages among multiple endpoints through networks that include firewalls and gateways.
D. When Web service providers must share their metadata with invoking clients.
Answer: D

16. An SOA solution designer is conducting an SOA assessment of a customer portfolio. Which of the following topic areas is most relevant to include as a topic for the application assessment?
A. Application security
B. Level of componentization
C. Required operating systems
D. Versions of off-the-shelf applications
Answer: B

17. As part of its SOA strategy, a company has developed many business services that are internally and externally accessible via a service registry. How does reuse of the business services across its line of business processes most likely provide business value to the company?
A. Leads to more consistent business processes and decreased business integration costs
B. Leads to reduced development costs and reduced need for deployment infrastructure
C. Leads to more innovative process implementations and increased IT budgets
D. Leads to enhanced supplier integration and reduced need for additional partnerships
Answer: A

18. An SOA solution designer at a large trucking company has recognized the requirement for business logic that can be adapted quickly to market conditions. The SOA solution designer recommends IBM’s SOA Reference Architecture, but is concerned that a simple service approach may not be responsive enough. Which of the following additional steps is best to take?
A. Use DB2 database tables to capture discount rates and maintenance costs so that business service logic can adapt automatically.
B. Use Java Agile programming techniques to quickly develop and deploy new business logic when needed.
C. Include IBM WebSphere Portal presentation logic to give customer service representatives better access to current discounts and offers.
D. Add IBM WebSphere Process Server so that business rules capture sensitive business variables.
Answer: D

19. The proposed design for a SOA solution only includes a number of low-level order database retrieval services. Will this approach lead to a successful SOA implementation?
A. Yes, because the details of the Order database have been hidden from consumers.
B. No, because database retrievals are not reusable business services.
C. No, because tight coupling of data leads to unnecessary complexity over time.
D. Yes, because SOA implementations are always more robust when data access services are included.
Answer: B

20. As part of an SOA assessment, an architect is tasked with assessing the service infrastructure. Which of the following should the architect focus on?
A. Services Management, Services Security, IT Standards, Operational Model
B. Services business alignment, Services Security, Development Standards, Operational Model
C. Services Management, Service Identification and Exposure, Web Services Technology, Operational Model
D. Services business alignment, Services Security, Web Services Technology, Operational Model
Answer: C

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Filed under: IBM — admin @ 3:26 pm

最新000-541考试题库

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购买000-541考试题库请认准Examsoon标志!切勿因贪便宜而造成不必要的损失和遗憾。下载题库及任何000-541问题请与我站管理员联系!

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选择 Examsoon 000-541 题库

000-541题库购买时请一定要认准Examsoon标志,世界第一IT认证资料服务提供商中国服务中心。

Examsoon
部分最新免费000-541认证题库
:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新000-541考试题库)

Examsoon
000-541学习资料

Examsoon
000-541题库,不同于Testiinside 000-541、certtinside 000-541、Pass4side000-541、Testking000-541、Pass4sure000-541的题库资料,是全球IT认证资料供应力量,以高科技的仿真效果,完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题,保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

Examsoon 000-541 的优势

1.Examsoon 模拟测试题具有最高的专业技术含量,只供具有相关专业知识的专家和学者学习和研究之用。

2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权,我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。

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最新350-029认证考试题库下载

Filed under: Cisco — admin @ 1:59 pm

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Exam : Cisco 350-029
Title : CCIE Service Provider Written Exam

1. BGP best route selection process is based on what?
A. lowest cost
B. highest bandwidth
C. lowest hop-count
D. path attributes
E. lowest delay
F. lowest delay and highest bandwidth
Answer: D

2. With the DSCP value of "101110", what does the "11" in bits 1 and 2 indicate?
A. AF Class
B. Drop Probability
C. CS (Class Selector Value)
D. PHB (Per-Hop Behavior)
E. IP Precedence
F. Queue Depth
Answer: B

3. router bgp 1
neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 2
The above bgp configuration has what effect on the configured router?
A. Allows incoming TCP connections destined to port 179
B. Allows incoming TCP connections sourced from port 179
C. Allows incoming TCP connections from 1.1.1.1 and destined to, or sourced from port 179
D. Allows incoming TCP connections from 1.1.1.1 that are destined to port 179
E. Allows incoming TCP connections from 1.1.1.1 that are sourced from port 179
Answer: D

4. BGP Community can be set in IOS using which configuration?
A. The neighbor {ip-address} prefix-list command within the BGP routing process
B. The neighbor {ip-address} update-source command within the BGP routing process
C. The network command within the BGP routing process
D. The set command within a route-map
E. The send-community command within a route-map
Answer: D

5. Which BGP Community option is used to prevent the advertisement of the BGP prefix to any other BGP peer?
A. additive
B. none
C. no-export
D. no-advertise
E. local-as
Answer: D

6. Having the above BGP peerings, which one of the following configurations for rtrB will advertise all routes from rtrA to rtrD but not to rtrC, but advertise the routes from rtrD to rtrC?
A. router bgp 2
neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 1
neighbor 1.1.1.1 route-map rtrA in
!
route-map rtrA permit 10
set community no-advertise
!
B. router bgp 2
neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 1
neighbor 1.1.1.1 route-map rtrA in
!
route-map rtrA permit 10
set community no-export
!
C. router bgp 2
neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 1
neighbor 1.1.1.1 route-map rtrA in
neighbor 3.3.3.3 remote-as 3
neighbor 3.3.3.3 route-map rtrC out
!
route-map rtrA permit 10
set community 5
!
route-map rtrC deny 10
match community 5
!
D. router bgp 2
neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 1
neighbor 1.1.1.1 route-map rtrA in
neighbor 3.3.3.3 remote-as 3
neighbor 3.3.3.3 route-map rtrC out
!
route-map rtrA permit 10
set community 5
!
route-map rtrC deny 10
match community 5
!
route-map rtrC permit 20
!
Answer: BD

7. Which two statements best describe the definition and configuration of Route-distinguisher as defined in RFC 2547 biz – AKA IP-VPN (MPLS-VPN)?
A. Route-Distinguisher is an 8 byte value used in creating unique VPNv4 address.
B. Route-Distinguisher is an 8 byte BGP attribute value used in influencing BGP best path algorithm.
C. Correct configuration to define Route-Distinguisher is:
ip vrf blue
rd 1:1
D. Correct configuration to define Route-Distinguisher is:
ip vrf blue
route-distinguisher 1:1
Answer: AC

8. Which of the following statements is correct regarding PIM Sparse Mode operations?
A. It does not support all underlying unicast routing protocols like BGP.
B. It supports shared trees only assuming all hosts want the multicast traffic.
C. Receivers are "registered" with RP by their first-hop router.
D. Receivers are "joined" to the Shared Tree (rooted at the RP) by their local Designated Router (DR).
E. From the RP, traffic flows down a Source Tree to each receiver.
Answer: D

9. Which two are characteristics of an IPv6 multicast address? (Choose two)
A. First (most significant) octet is FF in hex
B. Starts with a prefix of FE80 to FEBF in hex
C. Starts with a prefix of FEC0 to FEFF in hex
D. Second octet contains a 4-bit multicast scope field
E. Last 64 bit contains the modified MAC address of the Ethernet interface
F. Is allocated from the unicast address space
Answer: AD

10. When configuring Multicast VPN (MVPN) over an MPLS core, both the Default and Data MDT is configured under which configuration mode?
A. router(config)#
B. router(config-if)#
C. router(config-vrf)#
D. router(config-router)#
E. router(config-router-af)#
Answer: C

11. In Multicast VPN (MVPN) implementations, which two of the following statements are true regarding the Default MDT Group? (Choose two)
A. It is used for PIM control traffic.
B. It is optionally configured for a high bandwidth multicast source to reduce multicast traffic replication to uninterested PE routers.
C. Within the VRF configuration in the PE router, multiple Default MDT groups are configured so each VRF can support multiple multicast sources.
D. There is a reduced multicast state in the MPLS core P routers.
E. When multicast traffic exceeds a certain configured threshold, traffic from the Data MDT is switched to the Default MDT to conserve bandwidth.
Answer: AD

12. Which MQC-based output queueing method is designed to support multiple traffic classes including VoIP traffic, mission-critical traffic, bulk traffic, interactive traffic and default class traffic?
A. CBWFQ
B. CB-WRED
C. LLQ
D. Custom Queueing
E. WRR Queueing
Answer: C

13. With EIGRP DUAL, a feasible successor is considered loop-free if which condition is true?
A. Its AD is equal to the successor’s FD
B. Its AD is greater than the successor’s FD
C. Its AD is less than the successor’s FD
D. Its AD is equal to the metric of the successor
E. Its FD is equal to the metric of the successor
Answer: C

14. RIPv2 differs from RIPv1 in that:
A. It uses multicast address 224.0.0.10, instead of brodcast.
B. It uses multicast address 224.0.0.9, instead of broadcast.
C. It can use either multicast or broadcast addresses, instead of just broadcast.
D. It sends incremental updates, instead of periodic updates.
E. It is classless, instead of classful.
F. It supports authentication, and RIPv1 does not.
Answer: BEF

15. What bit should be set in the link state PDUs in an IS-IS level-1-2 router to indicate that they are a potential exit point out of the area?
A. ATT (Attached) bit
B. IS-Type bits
C. P (Partition) bit
D. Down bit
E. PN (Pseudonode) bit
F. ABR (Area Border Router) bit
Answer: A

16. What is used to provide read access to QoS configuration and statistics information on Cisco platforms that support Modular QoS CLI (MQC)?
A. Cisco NBAR Discovery
B. Cisco AutoQoS
C. Cisco Class-Based QoS MIB
D. Cisco SDM QoS Wizard
E. CDP
Answer: C

17. Refer to the exhibit. Your customer has enabled IPv6 on routers R1 and R2 and they can no longer reach R3. Which two steps should be taken to restore reachability to R3? (Choose Two.)
A. Enable wide metrics.
B. Enable OSPFv3 to support IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously.
C. Configure static routes to all unreachable networks and redistribute to IS-IS.
D. Transition to IS-IS Multiple Topology Mode on R1 and R2.
E. Transition to IS-IS Multiple Topology Mode on R3.
F. Create an IPv6 tunnel from R2 to R3.
Answer: AD

18. The show ip ospf database external command displays information about which OSPF LSA type?
A. LSA type 1
B. LSA type 2
C. LSA type 3
D. LSA type 5
E. LSA type 7
F. LSA type 9
Answer: D

19. The ASBR-summary LSA is:
A. Generated by the ASBR and describes reachability to itself
B. Generated by the ASBR and describes reachabilty to the ABR
C. Generated by the ABR and describes reachabilty to the ASBR for routers in a different area from the ASBR
D. Generated by the ABR and describes reachabilty to the ASBR for routers in the same area with the ASBR
Answer: C

20. Which two statements regarding the IS-IS DIS election process are true? (Choose Two.)
A. A priority of 0 will prevent a router from becoming a DIS.
B. If the DIS becomes unavailable the backup DIS is promoted to DIS.
C. Adding a router with a higher priority than the current DIS will result in the new router becoming DIS.
D. Separate L1 and L2 election processes are held on a broadcast network.
E. L1 routers on a broadcast network only establish adjacencies with the DIS.
F. If there is a tie based on priority, the router whose attached interface has the lowest MAC address becomes the DIS.
Answer: CD

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CCIE SP Written Exam 认证作为全球IT领域专家 Cisco 热门认证之一,是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。 如果你正在准备 350-029 考试,为 Cisco CCIE SP Written Exam认证做最后冲刺,又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟, Examsoon希望能助你成功。

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优点:具有学习模式,测试模式,线上自动升级
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缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

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Filed under: Cisco — admin @ 12:33 pm

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Examsoon最新646-046认证真题,真题覆盖率达到90%以上。考不过全额退款保障,让您认证无忧。绝对真实来自Examsoon的高质量题库。

购买646-046考试题库请认准Examsoon标志!切勿因贪便宜而造成不必要的损失和遗憾。下载题库及任何646-046问题请与我站管理员联系!

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2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权,我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。

3.如果你使用 Examsoon模拟测试,我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功,否则,我们将全额退款!

4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前,请检测联接,可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性。

646-046 考试是 Cisco 公司的 Advanced Routing and Switching for Account Managers 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的 646-046 权威考试题库软件是 Cisco 认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 646-046考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

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优点:不需下载安装软件,方便用户打印和携带,但也带来了可随意制的弊端,因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的646-046题库,一经发现立即取消其升级资格,且不予退款。
缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

Examsoon
部分最新免费646-046认证题库
:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新646-046考试题库)

 
 
Exam : Cisco 646-046
Title : Advanced Routing and Switching for Account Managers

1. What feature of a hierarchical network design that includes a core layer, a distribution layer, and an access layer helps ensure that employees will always have access to critical business applications?
A. A minimal configuration at the core layer
B. Standby switches configured with regular failover at the distribution layer
C. Standby switches configured with regular failover at the access layer
D. Dual paths from layer to layer
Answer: D

2. Which toolset provides efficiency by manually and uniformly indicating respective priority levels in frame and packet headers?
A. auto QoS
B. CAC tools
C. classification and marking tools
D. link-specific tools
Answer: C

3. Your customer is concerned about ease of management. What two facts could you use to explain to the customer how Cisco IOS improves ease of management? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco IOS Software includes an EEM that provides CPU usage detection and a watchdog mechanism.
B. Cisco IOS Software includes software upgrades that enable the creation of individual paths.
C. Cisco IOS Software determines the best recovery action, based on high availability, when there is an error in the modular process.
D. Cisco IOS Software supports more than 20 independent processes in addition to the standard Cisco IOS Software features.
E. Cisco IOS Software allows administrators to use Tool Command Language to develop policy scripts that can detect a defined event.
Answer: AE

4. As part of the Cisco QoS toolset, what is one characteristic of a link-specific tool?
A. It is an intelligent macro that addresses customer demand for simplification.
B. It indicates respective priority levels in frame and packet headers.
C. It manages packets and frames according to the capabilities of the links on a particular device.
D. It determines whether packets are conforming to administratively defined traffic rates and takes action accordingly.
Answer: C

5. How many completed network assessments result in near-term booking of more than $200K?
A. 1 out of 2
B. 1 out of 3
C. 1 out of 4
D. 1 out of 5
Answer: B

6. Which three best describe the customer benefits of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach? (Choose three.)
A. improve the skill sets of its staff members
B. increase the value of and return on investment for its networks
C. increase network staff productivity
D. increase the amount of server room rack space
E. improve network availability, resiliency, security, and scalability
F. increase the amount of time required to integrate network changes
Answer: BCE

7. Which four Cisco IOS Software features facilitate network configuration and operation? (Choose four.)
A. AES key
B. online help
C. smart wizards
D. automated router security
E. access layer troubleshooting
F. Cisco TAC-recommended configurations
Answer: BCDF

8. What are the four key benefits of Cisco SDM? (Choose four.)
A. ease of use
B. troubleshooting
C. integrated security
D. IEEE authentication
E. application intelligence
F. graphical monitoring and access
Answer: ABEF

9. Cisco Catalyst Express 500 Series switches are positioned for which market segment?
A. Telecommuter home office
B. Small branch office of less than 250 employees
C. Medium-sized branch office of between 250 and 500 employees
D. Large office of between 500 and 1,000 employees
Answer: B

10. What are three business-related benefits of a converged network environment? (Choose three.)
A. IP routers and switches do not need to be upgraded as often.
B. Employee productivity increases due to a broader range of network accessibility.
C. Systems operators have dual user interface access to converged network functions.
D. There is less time needed for network training and management.
E. Routers and switches can move traditional network data and voice and video data.
F. Routers and swtiches can move voice and video data, but not traditional network data.
Answer: BDE

最新HT0-101认证考试题库下载

Filed under: CompTIA — admin @ 10:08 am

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免费642-066学习资料

Filed under: Cisco — admin @ 4:22 am

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缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

Examsoon
部分最新免费642-066认证题库
:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新642-066考试题库)

 
 
Exam : Cisco 642-066
Title : Advanced Routing and Switching for Field Engineers

1. While troubleshooting a network outage, you discover that an employee brought a switch from home into the office to connect additional equipment to the network. In order to increase his speed, he connected this switch to both network ports in his office, resulting in a bridge loop. Which of these can you implement to prevent future occurrences of this issue?
A. RSTP
B. root guard
C. BPDU guard
D. GLBP
Answer: C

2. Which tool allows a LAN client to determine which router should be the first hop to a particular remote destination, allowing simplified client configuration and processing without creating a single point of failure?
A. Proxy ARP
B. Dynamic Routing Protocol
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
Answer: D

3. You are troubleshooting an issue which is causing full-sized packets entering the MPLS cloud to be dropped. You have discovered that one of the switches in the MPLS core is not a Cisco switch, but otherwise the MPLS MTU size is set to 1508 bytes on the routers. Based on this information, which of these may be the reason the packets are being dropped?
A. no switches support oversized packets
B. by definition, the maximum MTU is 1500 bytes
C. the switch on your MPLS core that was not produced by Cisco does not support oversized packets
D. in this situation, the MTU setting is irrelevant; in MPLS the maximum acceptable IP packet size is 1492 bytes
E. as MPLS VPN labeling increases the size of the packet by 8 bytes, the IP MTU should have been changed to 1508
Answer: C

4. Refer to the exhibit. For the given configuration, on packets leaving the router on interface FastEthernet0/0 that matches the high traffic class, what will the MPLS experimental bit be set to?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
Answer: D

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which show command would display the information in the exhibit?
A. show policy-map
B. show policy-map high-priority
C. show interfaces fastEthernet 0/1 policy-map
D. show policy-map interfaces fastEthernet 0/1
Answer: D

6. Refer to the exhibit. Which Catalyst switch configuration would protect a customer network from possible disruption in the case in which an unauthorized switch is added to the network?
A. Switch0#show running-configuration
!
hostname Switch0
!
no spanning-tree optimize bpdu transmission
spanning-tree extend system-id
!
interface FastEthernet0/1
switchport protected
!
B. Switch0#show running-configuration
!
hostname Switch0
!
spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
no spanning-tree optimize bpdu transmission
spanning-tree extend system-id
!
interface FastEthernet0/1
spanning-tree guard root
!
C. Switch0#show running-configuration
!
hostname Switch0
!
no spanning-tree optimize bpdu transmission
spanning-tree extend system-id
!
interface FastEthernet0/1
switchport mode access
!
D. Switch0#show running-configuration
!
hostname Switch0
!
no spanning-tree optimize bpdu transmission
spanning-tree extend system-id
!
interface FastEthernet0/1
switchport port-security violation restrict
!
Answer: B

7. What can be specified in IP VACLs?
A. IP source only
B. IP destination only
C. protocol and IP source only
D. IP source, IP destination, and ports
Answer: D

8. Cisco Catalyst switches support which three PVLAN port types? (Choose three.)
A. private
B. isolated
C. permanent
D. community
E. non-isolated
F. promiscuous
Answer: BDF

9. Which two of the following actions must an OSPF NSF-capable router execute after a supervisor engine switchover? (Choose two.)
A. send the graceful restart message
B. exchange the complete routing table
C. re-acquire the link state database content for the network
D. re-learn the available OSPF neighbors with neighbor relationship restart
E. re-learn the available OSPF neighbors without neighbor relationship restart
Answer: CE

10. Which two of the following statements are true about HSRP load sharing? (Choose two)
A. It is achieved by using more than one HSRP group.
B. It is done in regards to either round robin or weight basis.
C. It is used to offload the active router in a certain HSRP group.
D. Single group HSRP is used to achieve more efficient link utilization.
E. The return traffic is influenced by HSRP load sharing configuration.
Answer: AC

11. You would like to log messages up to the severity level "Notification." Which three of these commands will you need to issue in order to enable syslog messages to be sent to the syslog server at the IP address 10.1.5.5? (Choose three.)
A. logging on
B. logging host 10.1.5.5
C. logging trap notifications
D. logging syslog notifications
E. logging monitor notifications
F. logging console notifications
Answer: ABC

12. While your MPLS core is using Cisco routers, the core of a company you have acquired is not. After extending your MPLS VPN networks by integrating the cores, you discover that the end-to-end LPS path between PE routers cannot be established.
Which of the following may have caused this problem?
A. the MTUs do not match
B. the BGP protocol versions do not match
C. MPLS is not supported between different vendors
D. MP-BGP is not supported between different vendors
E. you are using Cisco proprietary TDP in your existing core
Answer: E

13. What is the purpose of using VPN hardware acceleration equipment?
A. to use WebVPN instead of IPSec
B. to decrease performance and efficiency
C. to offload encryption functions from a router CPU
D. to offload encryptions functions from router memory
Answer: C

14. When implementing MPLS VPNs between CE and PE routers, which of these statements is correct?
A. If using IS-IS as the PE-CE routing protocol, no redistribution is required.
B. If using static routes between the CE and PE routers, no redistribution of other VPN routes is required.
C. If the PE-CE protocol is not BGP, redistribution of other VPN routes from MP-BGP is required.
D. If RIP is the routing protocol that is used between the PE-CE routers, no redistribution is required, but any other protocol will require redistribution.
E. If using OSPF or EIGRP as the PE-CE routing protocol, redistribution is not required, but any other protocol or static route will require redistribution.
Answer: C

15. Refer to the exhibit. You want to minimize the downtime that results from supervisor engine switchovers on Cisco 6500 Series Switches and Cisco 7600 Series Routers. To achieve this, you are considering deploying a Cisco Nonstop Forwarding with Stateful Switchover solution using OSPF.
In the exhibit you can see the output of the show ip ospf neighbor detail command. Which trait of systems using Cisco Nonstop Forwarding with Stateful Switchover and OSPF is shown in the exhibit output and will impact your plan?
A. Stateful Switchover for Cisco Nonstop Forwarding only works with BGP.
B. Stateful Switchover for Cisco Nonstop Forwarding must be configured on all adjacent routers.
C. Cisco Nonstop Forwarding with Stateful Switchover helper mode is not supported on the adjacent router.
D. Cisco Nonstop Forwarding with Stateful Switchover helper mode for OSPF has been standardized and is supported on the adjacent router.
Answer: D

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which two of these events will be the result of issuing the above command? (Choose two.)
A. A 64-bit IPv4 prefix will be created.
B. The route distinguisher will be used to indicate VPN membership.
C. Extended BGP communities will be used to encode route distinguishers.
D. A 96-bit VPNv4 prefix will be created and propagated across the IP network.
E. The route distinguisher is 64 bits and will be prepended to an existing IPv4 route to make it globally unique.
Answer: DE

17. You are operating a multi-vendor network and are considering adding redundancy at the access level. Which routing redundancy solution should you implement?
A. Hot Standby Router Protocol
B. Gateway Load Balancing Protocol
C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
D. both Gateway Load Balancing Protocol and Hot Standby Router Protocol
Answer: C

18. What is the function of the no switchport Catalyst switch interface configuration command?
A. switches the port from access mode to trunk mode
B. converts the port from physical Layer 2 port to physical Layer 3 port
C. enables the interface for Layer 2 switching
D. disables the interface to prevent traffic flow
E. clears all the configurations on the interface
Answer: B

19. Refer to the exhibit. What is the HSRP state and priority of this interface after HSRP reaches its steady state?
A. Active, Priority 151
B. Active, Priority 201
C. Active, Priority 251
D. Standby, Priority 151
E. Standby, Priority 201
F. Standby, Priority 251
Answer: D

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Exam : IBM 000-257
Title : Test 257,ent apdevwwibm rtnl apdev for wbsph software v6.0

1. A developer is creating a CMP EJB using an existing database and has begun generating the RDB to EJB mapping by creating a new backend folder. The next step the developer should take is to:
A. Specify attributes for the EJB.
B. Map attributes to columns.
C. Create a bottom up mapping.
D. Create a top down mapping.
Answer: C

2. In an enterprise application EJB_A invokes a method on EJB_B. How must the EJB run-as security identity be configured in the EJB deployment descriptor for the current setting to allow EJB_A to invoke EJB_B?
A. Set run-as on EJB_A to role_A.
B. Set run-as on EJB_A to role_B.
C. Set run-as on EJB_B to role_A.
D. Set run-as on EJB_B to role_B.
Answer: B

3. A client uses a generated Java proxy to make a call to a Web service. Invoking the method on the proxy results in a RemoteException. What is a likely cause?
A. The server hosting the Web service is unavailable.
B. An application exception was thrown by the Web service.
C. A handler on the client was configured incorrectly.
D. The client was run in an unmanaged environment.
Answer: A

4. An application uses container-managed persistence EJBs to update a DB2 database. If database support for handling collisions is required, which of the following access intent policies will provide the best performance?
A. wsOptimisticUpdate
B. wsPessimisticUpdate-WeakestLockAtLoad
C. wsPessimisticUpdate
D. wsPessimisticUpdate-Exclusive
Answer: B

5. A developer wants to use form-based authentication to secure resources in a Web application. In the Web deployment descriptor editor, the developer has set the Authentication method to FORM and configured appropriate security roles. What additional entries need to be configured to protect the resources?
A. Specify a Login page and create a Security Constraint defining the URL patterns of the resources to be secured and appropriate Authorized roles.
B. Specify Login and Error pages and create a Security Constraint defining the URL patterns of the resources to be secured and appropriate Authorized roles.
C. Specify Login and Error pages.
D. Specify a Login page.
Answer: B

6. A developer is implementing security requirements for a Web module. Which HTTP Methods would be the MOST likely to cover these requirements?
A. GET and POST
B. GET and PUT
C. GET, POST and PUT
D. GET, POST, PUT and DELETE
Answer: A

7. When creating a message-driven bean, which interface, if any, can be generated?
A. The home interface
B. The remote interface
C. The listenerPort interface
D. No interface can be generated
Answer: D

8. Which of the following EJB components can be used as the basis for bottom-up Web services development in Rational Application Developer?
A. Message-driven bean
B. Stateful session bean
C. Stateless session bean
D. Container-managed entity bean
Answer: C

9. The relationship fields for a 1:1 container-managed relationship EJB must be of the same type as:
A. The local interface of the related EJB.
B. The remote interface of the related EJB.
C. The primary key of the underlying table.
D. The foreign key of the underlying table.
Answer: A

10. A developer is working with read-only EJBs that will have exclusive access to the data store. The BEST way to provide better response time at the expense of increased memory utilization is to use the bean cache section of the EJB deployment descriptor to set:
A. Activate at ONCE and load at ACTIVATION.
B. Activate at ONCE and load at TRANSACTION.
C. Activate at TRANSACTION and load at ONCE.
D. Activate at TRANSACTION and load at TRANSACTION.
Answer: A

11. A developer can assign container-managed relationship (CMR) fields by:
A. Coding the ejbCreate() method.
B. Coding the ejbPostCreate() method.
C. Mapping the primary key to the foreign key.
D. Generating the code with the relationship wizard.
Answer: B

12. Which method in an entity bean would a developer have to code business logic in, if the bean contains references to resources that cannot be serialized?
A. ejbRemove()
B. ejbStore()
C. ejbPassivate()
D. ejbFindByPrimaryKey()
Answer: C

13. If a developer wants to create a Web service that must conform to all supported WS-I profiles, the developer should:
A. Set the WS-I Compliance preferences to "Require compliance" before creating the Web service.
B. Set the WS-I Compliance preferences to "Suggest compliance" before creating the Web service and disable related warnings in the Problems view.
C. Use the New WS-I Compliant Web Service wizard to create the Web service.
D. Check the "Require WS-I compliance" checkbox in the New Web Service wizard.
Answer: A

14. A developer has two J2EE applications that are loosely coupled via Web services. The two applications are designated as the service application and the client application. The Web service is referenced and called from a Web module in the client application. In which set of files would a developer configure JAX-RPC handlers?
A. The service application’s webservices.xml and the service application’s web.xml files
B. The client application’s webservices.xml and the service application’s ejb-jar.xml files
C. The client application’s webservices.xml and the service application’s web.xml files
D. The service application’s webservices.xml and the client application’s web.xml files
Answer: D

15. A stateless session EJB has been created that uses EJB inheritance. A developer is testing the newly created child EJB using the Universal Test Client (UTC). The developer has invoked the create method on the child EJB’s home interface and is now working with a reference to the child EJB’s remote component interface. When the developer expands the child EJB’s remote component interface reference within the UTC, the methods inherited from the parent EJB are not displayed. What should the developer do in order to be able to see the inherited methods?
A. Select "Load Class" under the "Utilities" section of the Universal Test Client and load the parent EJB’s remote component interface.
B. Select "Cast Class" under the "Utilities" section of the Universal Test Client and cast the reference to the parent EJB’s remote component interface.
C. Select "Method Visibility" under the child EJB’s remote component interface. On the screen that appears, enable the checkbox beside the parent EJB’s remote component interface.
D. Use the JNDI Explorer to find the parent EJB’s home interface, invoke the associated create method, and then cast the remote component interface that is returned to the child EJB’s remote component interface type.
Answer: C

16. A developer runs a Web service client in an unmanaged environment using a generated Java proxy. The client throws an Exception indicating that it failed to create an InitialContext. The same proxy class used in a managed environment works fine. If the developer did not modify the generated code, what is a likely cause of the problem?
A. The security context for the JNDI manager cannot be propagated in an unmanaged environment.
B. The transaction context can not be propagated in an unmanaged environment.
C. The Web service being invoked uses the SOAP over JMS binding.
D. Java proxies generated by the wizard can only be run in a managed environment.
Answer: C

17. A developer is creating a client to invoke a secured Web service. The service requires that the body of the SOAP request be encrypted. What type of element in the WS Extension page of the client’s Deployment Descriptor should the developer configure?
A. Integrity
B. Confidentiality
C. Security Token
D. Timestamp
Answer: B

18. While configuring a datasource in the EAR deployment descriptor editor, the drop-down boxes that allow a JAAS authentication alias to be specified are empty. How can the JAAS authentication alias be configured in order for it to be visible in the drop down box?
A. Add a J2EE security role with associated users in the EAR deployment descriptor editor.
B. Add the required JAAS authentication alias in the EAR deployment descriptor editor.
C. Add the JAAS authentication alias to the datasource reference in the EJB deployment descriptor editor.
D. Use the WebSphere V6 administrative console to add the JAAS authentication alias.
Answer: B

19. Which of the following is an advantage of using the Snippets view to generate code for invoking a method on a Session Bean?
A. The Service Locator pattern is used and the home is cached.
B. The Service Locator pattern is used and individual bean instances are cached.
C. The generated code does not require try-catch blocks to handle errors.
D. The bean on which the method is invoked can be determined at runtime.
Answer: A

20. A web module defines a J2EE security role, Managers. Using the appropriate deployment descriptor editor, the developer then binds this role to the User Registry user, supervisors. What file would need to be explored to find this specified association?
A. application.xml
B. web.xml
C. ibm-application-bnd.xmi
D. ibm-web-bnd.xmi
Answer: C

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2009年09月29日

最新1z0-033认证考试题库下载

Filed under: Oracle — admin @ 11:05 pm

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Exam : Oracle 1Z0-033
Title : Oracle 9I Database:Performance Tuning

1. You need to size the KEEP pool. Which calculation would you use to determine the initial size of the KEEP pool?
A.50% of the DEFAULT pool
B.50% of the RECYCLE pool
C.the total number of blocks of all the candidate objects that you need in the KEEP pool / the number of objects that you need in the KEEP pool
D.total number of blocks of all the candidate objects that you need in the KEEP pool + additional space to allow for object growth
Answer: D

2. You have reserved memory within the Shared Pool by using the SHARED_POOL_RESERVED_SIZE parameter to accommodate large space allocations while compiling PL/SQL blocks and database triggers.
While observing the performance of the reserved area, you find that the value of the REQUEST_FAILURES column in the V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVED view is continuously increasing.
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A.The parsing of the statement fails due to invalidations.
B.The execution of the statement fails due to invalidations.
C.The space allocated for the reserved area is not enough.
D.The syntax in the PL/SQL blocks is causing the compilation failure.
Answer: C

3. You have online application users who are interested in seeing a few initial results of a query. Therefore you require the query to produce a few initial rows quickly regardless of the presence of statistics. Which optimizer mode would you choose?
A.RULE
B.CHOOSE
C.ALL_ROWS
D.FIRST_ROWS_n
Answer: D

4. You create a stored outline and apply it for use. What strategy would you adopt to verify that the stored outline is being used for a statement?
A.verify OL$,OL$HINTS, and OL$NODES tables after running the statement with USE_STORED_OUTLINES set
B.examine the V$SQL dynamic performance view after running the statement with the USE_STORED_OUTLINES set
C.compare the explain plan output for the statement when running with and without the USE_STORED_OUTLINES set
D.compare the statspack output by taking snaps before and after running the statement with the USE_STORED_OUTLINES set
Answer: C

5. Smith is a DBA with XYZ Corp. There are 500 data entry users in an online transaction processing (OLTP) environment. The current response time is 15-20 seconds. The company wants the response time to be brought down to 10 seconds or less.
What is the first thing that Smith should do to diagnose the cause of the slow response time?
A.determine whether there is contention for locks
B.determine whether the file system is fast enough
C.determine whether more memory needs to be allocated to PGA
D.determine whether more memory needs to be allocated to SGA
E.determine whether the slow response is wait bound or CPU bound
Answer: E

6. You executed the following query to know about users and their consumer groups:
SQL> SELECT * FROM DBA_RSRC_CONSUMER_GROUP_PRIVS;
GRANTEE GRANTED_GROUP GRANT_OPTION INITIAL_GROUP
————— ————————- ————— —————
SCOTT LOW_GROUP NO NO
PUBLIC LOW_GROUP NO NO
PUBLIC DEFAULT_CONSUMER_GROUP YES YES
SYSTEM SYS_GROUP NO YES
If the user SCOTT starts a session, to which consumer group will the session belong?
A.The session belongs to LOW_GROUP.
B.The session belongs to SYS_GROUP.
C.The session belongs to DEFAULT_CONSUMER_GROUP.
D.The session does not belong to any group because the user is not assigned to any group.
Answer: C

7. When tuning a database server, which three goals should you focus on? (Choose three.)
A.minimize response time for OLTP users
B.maximize throughput for batch processing
C.minimize response time for batch processing
D.increase load capability for the decision-support systems
E.minimize parallelism for online transaction processing (OLTP) systems
Answer: ABD

8. In an online transaction processing (OLTP) system, you notice that the transactions are waiting. Which two techniques would you use to determine if it is a locking problem? (Choose two.)
A.query V$SESSION to determine the sessions waiting for locks
B.query V$LOCKED_OBJECT to diagnose the deadlocked sessions
C.execute the utllockt.sql script to find the list of locking and waiting transactions
D.use the catblock.sql script to populate DBA_BLOCKERS and DBA_WAITERS views
E.query the DBA_WAITERS view to determine the sessions that are waiting for a locked resource
Answer: CE

9. ABC Corp. plans to build an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. The company plans to tune all the components during the development life cycle.
From the list given below, identify the order in which the components should be tuned.
1: logical and physical model
2: cursor sharing
3: Oracle instance memory structures
4: operating system
5: data file I/O
A.1, 2, 3, 5, 4
B.1, 3, 2, 4, 5
C.1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D.1, 2, 5, 3, 4
Answer: A

10. View the Exhibit and examine the output to check the resource plan directives associated with the groups in a plan.
Which three statements are true regarding the output? (Choose three.)
A.The users belonging to OTHER_GROUPS will never be able to run a query.
B.Even if there is only one active session running, that session is allowed to utilize all the available CPU resources according to the directives of the plan.
C.It is possible to raise the priority for the online transaction processing (OLTP) group from 80% to 90% without changing the priority for any other group.
D.In a fully loaded system, sessions for OTHER_GROUPS have to wait for other sessions to finish work if all CPU is used by first three groups.
E.In a heavily used system, the sessions in the OLTP group have the ability to consume 80% or more of the total CPU resources available.
Answer: BDE

11. View the Exhibit and examine the steps to create a database resource plan. Execution of the following procedure resulted in an error:
SQL> EXECUTE dbms_resource_manager.validate_pending_area();
What could be the reason for this?
A.The ADMINISTER_RESOURCE_MANAGER privilege is not granted to the user.
B.The procedure should be executed before creating the resource plan directive.
C.The SYS_GROUP resource consumer group is not included in the resource plan directive.
D.The OTHER_GROUPS resource consumer group is not included in the resource plan directive.
Answer: D

12. A customer has various dictionary-managed tablespaces with past data. The extents in dictionary-managed tablespaces are not uniformly sized. Newly created tablespaces are locally managed. You want to make all the tablespaces locally managed. What approach would you use to change the dictionary-managed tablespaces to locally managed tablespaces to get all the performance benefits of local extent management?
A.use only the DBMS_SPACE_ADMIN.TABLESPACE_MIGRATE_TO_LOCAL procedure
B.create new locally managed tablespaces and move data from existing dictionary-managed tablespaces to locally managed tablespaces
C.use the DBMS_SPACE_ADMIN.TABLESPACE_MIGRATE_TO_LOCAL procedure, followed by DBMS_SPACE_ADMIN.TABLESPACE_FIX_SEGMENT_STATES
D.use the ALTER TABLESPACE command to change extent management to local, and then use the DBMS_SPACE_ADMIN.TABLESPACE_MIGRATE_TO_LOCAL procedure
Answer: B

13. Why does performance degrade when many UPDATE, INSERT, or DELETE statements are issued on a table that has an associated Bitmap index?
A.Some DML operations re-create the Bitmap index blocks.
B.The Bitmap index is rebuilt automatically after a DML operation.
C.The smallest amount of a bitmap that can be locked is a bitmap segment.
D.Additional time is taken to remove NULL values from the Bitmap index after a DML operation.
Answer: C

14. The following are the tasks that you need to perform to create a resource plan:
A) Creating resource consumer groups
B) Validating pending area
C) Creating a pending area
D) Creating resource plans
E) Creating plan directives
F) Submitting pending area
In which order would you perform these tasks?
A.C, D, A, E, B, F
B.C, B, F, E, A, D
C.C, B, E, D, A, F
D.C, F, E, A, D, B
tings with users once each two weeks to discuss performance
Answer: A

15. Oracle Shared Server is best used when _____ and _____. (Choose two.)
A.the database is experiencing database-intensive work
B.the database is primarily used for batch or DSS operations
C.CPU usage on your machine is consistently at 90% or higher
D.an OLTP application is running on a machine approaching memory resource limits
E.you do not need to scale up the number of concurrent connections to the database
F.the database is primarily used for an interactive application where dedicated servers are mainly idle
Answer: DF

16. Which two activities would adversely affect database performance? (Choose two.)
A.doing a soft parse
B.performing archiving
C.less frequent checkpointing
D.defining multiple buffer pools
E.taking online back up of data files
Answer: BE

17. The values for the resource plan directives are set as follows:
SWITCH_GROUP = OLAP
SWITCH_TIME = 1000
SWITCH_ESTIMATE = True
What are the two implications of these values on a running session belonging to the consumer group for which these directives are set? (Choose two.)
A.These settings are useful to limit the resources consumed by short-running operations.
B.The resource manager switches the session to the OLAP group if the session is active for more than 1,000 seconds and after the operation the session becomes part of the OLAP group.
C.The resource manager can switch the session to the OLAP group before an operation even starts running.
D.The resource manager switches the session to the online analytical processing (OLAP) group if the session is active for more than 1,000 seconds and after the operation the session is moved back to the original group.
Answer: CD

18. Smith is a DBA with ABC Corp. He is in the process of tuning the database. He has received various problem statements from the customers. Identify three appropriately defined problem statements that Smith can use to tune the database correctly. (Choose three.)
A.The system is too slow.
B.Online response is very slow.
C.Sometimes the batch process throws errors.
D.The weekly backup took 30 minutes, and earlier it used to take 5 minutes.
E.The batch process is taking 2 hours, whereas it should take only 30 minutes.
F.The system currently has 100 users. We wish to increase the number of users to 250. The users’ response time should not be affected.
Answer: DEF

19. ABC Corp. has an online transaction processing (OLTP) system that has just gone into production. The system was rigorously tested during the development phases.
What is the first recommended activity that the DBA should perform before starting to monitor the performance of the system on a regular basis?
A.running SQL*Trace
B.collecting baseline statistics
C.analyzing indexes and user tables
D.arranging meetings with users once each two weeks to discuss performance
Answer: B

20. View the Exhibit.
In your database, you find that the fy05q1 table in a dictionary managed tablespace has excess space. Further, you find that the table consists of three extents. The size of the first extent is 100KB, the second is 200KB, and the third is 300K. The high water mark is in the middle of the second extent, and there is 400KB of unused space.
You want to release the unused space so that it can be used by other segments. You execute the following command to achieve this task:
SQL> ALTER TABLE fy05q1 DEALLOCATE UNUSED;
What would this command do?
A.deallocates the third and second extents
B.deallocates the third extent; the second extent remains as it is
C.deallocates the third extent, and the second extent is sized to 100KB
D.returns an error because the unused space is above the high water mark
Answer: C

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