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2009年08月31日

免费1z0-271学习资料

Filed under: Oracle — admin @ 7:32 pm

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Exam : Oracle 1Z0-271
Title : Hyperion Financial Management 9.3 Administrator I&II

1. Which module in BPM Architect is used to import metadata, create members and modify member properties?
A. Application Library
B. Metadata Manager
C. Dimension Library
D. Dimension Impact Manager
Answer: C

2. The primary function of the client tier is to:
A. Display data, enter data, maintain data and to maintain metadata.
B. Enter data, authenticate user security, and manage connectivity to Hyperion System 9 BPM Architect.
C. Authenticate user security, manage metadata, display data, and enter data.
Answer: A

3. What are Dimension Associations?
A. Used to link dimensions from the Master view to the Application view.
B. Link parent dimensions with child members.
C. Associates language properties with dimensions.
D. Used to associate dimensions that reference other dimensions.
Answer: D

4. Dynamic account type is needed for correct calculation of parent values for custom dimensions, time periods, and period-to date views if the account uses: _____
A. Percentages and ratios
B. Consolidations
C. Plug accounts
D. ICP accounts
Answer: A

5. The default data view for a scenario can be: (Choose two.)
A. Periodic values
B. Month-to-date values
C. YTD values
D. Period-to-date values
Answer: AC

6. A dimension association is required between the Currency property of the Entity dimension and the _______ dimension.
A. Value
B. Account
C. Currency
D. ICP
Answer: C

7. If SwitchSignForFlow is used to set up custom members balance sheet movement, what happens to the sign behavior for the asset account type?
A. The account switches to the Revenue account type.
B. The account switches to the Liability account type.
C. The account switches to the Expense account type.
D. The account remains the same.
Answer: B

8. A user sets up a Choices list for the Scenario dimension of the Comma application to limit his user Point of View selections to Actual and Budget. This limits the user’s member selection to:
A. All reports generated for any database connection
B. All reports generated for the Comma database connection
C. Only the currently selected grid that retrieves data from the Comma database connection
D. Only the currently selected report that retrieves data from the Comma database connection
Answer: B

9. What are the characteristics of a Sub EnumMemberLists()? (Choose three.)
A. Specifies which dimensions have member lists.
B. Names each member list in each dimension.
C. Used to add members to a list.
D. Specify the number of lists for each dimension.
E. Used to create both static and dynamic lists.
Answer: ABD

10. Interface tables are used to import metadata from external systems into the Dimension Library by using:
A. Database tables
B. Flat files
C. Visual Basic programs
D. XLS files
Answer: A

11. Which statement is true regarding row and column templates?
A. Can modify cell text
B. Can automatically save changes by saving the report
C. Can use inherit formatting
D. Can modify formulas
Answer: C

12. Which dimension view allows you to create dimensions?
A. Master view
B. Dimension view
C. Application view
D. Hierarchy view
Answer: A

13. How are Financial Management applications accessed in Workspace?
A. Select Navigate > Applications > Consolidation > <Application Name>.
B. Select File > Access Application > <APPLICATION Name>.
C. Select Navigate > Financial Management > <Application NAme>.
D. Select Administer > Open Application > <Application Name>
Answer: A

14. How is a child member moved to a new parent in the Dimension Library?
A. Right-click the child member and select Cut, then right-click the member that you want as the new parent, and select Paste > As Child.
B. Right-click the child member and select Move, then right-click the member that you want as the new parent, and select Paste.
C. Select the child member, click Edit > Move, then select the Parent member and click Edit > Paste as Child.
D. Select the child member, click the Move as Child button, in the dialog box enter the Parent name to which the child will move. Click OK.
Answer: A

15. Load files are divided into sections. What character is used as a section identifier?
A. #
B. *
C. &
D. !
Answer: D

16. What two methods are used to create dimensions in the Dimension Library? (Choose two.)
A. Create them manually in the dimension editor.
B. Import dimensions from a formatted flat file.
C. Import dimensions from the Metadata Manager.
D. Select dimensions from a system generated list in the Dimension Library.
Answer: AB

17. How many Account Types are there?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 15
Answer: C

18. Which of the following does Financial Management use in its multitier architecture? (Choose three.)
A. A Web tier
B. A client tier
C. A database tier
D. An application tier
Answer: BCD

19. You load metadata by creating and running a(n):_____
A. Registration file
B. Import profile
C. Application file
D. XML file
Answer: B

20. Which standard dimension provides an audit trail of the transformations applied to Hyperion System 9 Financial Management data?
A. Entity dimension
B. Period dimension
C. Account dimension
D. Value dimension
Answer: D

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优点:不需下载安装软件,方便用户打印和携带,但也带来了可随意制的弊端,因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的HP0-071题库,一经发现立即取消其升级资格,且不予退款。
缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

Examsoon
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Exam : IBM 000-857
Title : Iseries Windows Integration Technical Solutions v5r3

1. Domain user enrollment using iSeries Navigator is failing but had been working previously. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The QVNAVARY job on the iSeries is not active.
B. The NetServer guest user profile has been disabled.
C. The User Administration service on Windows is not active.
D. The QAS400NT user profile is not enrolled to the local server.
Answer: C

2. A customer with an i820 wants to replace an existing Migration Tower with a FC #5094 tower and is adding an IXA to the configuration. The customer has specified the IXA will be powered on/off during the week due to processing requirements. What HSL cables will be needed to accomplish this configuration?
A. 1 HSL cable and 2 HSL-2 to HSL cables
B. 1 HSL cable, 1 HSL-2 cable, and 1 HSL-2 to HSL cable
C. 3 HSL cables
D. 3 HSL-2 cables
Answer: A

3. An iSeries administrator has set up user enrollment of the iSeries users into the Windows domain. The users are not being enrolled in the Windows domain. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The QAS400NT user profile is not enrolled in the system directory.
B. The QAS400NT user profile does not have *SECADM special authority.
C. The QAS400NT account is not a member of the Windows Domain Admin group.
D. The QAS400NT account is not a member of the AS400_Permanent_Users group.
Answer: C

4. A web server needs to be created in a Microsoft cluster and should have all web content stored on a storage space for the clustered web server. Which of the following describes how the storage spaces should be configured?
A. Each server node will utilize a shared storage space for the quorum resource and a shared storage space for web server content.
B. Each server node needs to have a dedicated quorum resource disk but will utilize a shared storage space for web server content.
C. Each server node needs to have a dedicated quorum resource disk and a dedicated web server disk.
D. Each server node will utilize a shared storage space for web server content, but only the cluster master will have the quorum disk linked.
Answer: A

5. A customer has an i810 with one attached I/O tower. They want to add an IXA-attached x236 server to their existing HSL/SPCN configuration. In addition to the IXA card, what hardware will they need to order?
A. 1 HSL cable and 1 SPCN cable
B. 1 HSL cable, 1 SPCN cable, and an RSA card
C. 2 HSL cables and 2 SPCN cables
D. 2 HSL cables, 2 SPCN cables, and an RSA card
Answer: B

6. A customer wants to connect an existing xSeries server to a model i830 server with an IXA adapter. The xSeries server is installed in a rack 60 feet from the i830 server. What is required to configure the xSeries on its own HSL loop?
A. Order two 25 meter copper HSL cables.
B. Order two 30 meter optical RIO-G cables.
C. Order two 15 meter copper HSL2 cables and move the xSeries server closer to the i830 server.
D. Order two 15 meter copper HSL cables and move the xSeries server closer to the i830 server.
Answer: D

7. A customer has a CD with Windows 2000 Service Pack 3 and wants to load it onto their IXS servers. When using Windows Explorer, the CD drive is not shown. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The iSeries optical drive is on a shared bus.
B. The virtual point-to-point interface is not active.
C. The Windows Computer Browser service is not started.
D. The iSeries optical drive was not locked using the Windows Integration snap-in.
Answer: D

8. A customer with a new i825 and an xSeries 445 with an IXA wants to start loading the Microsoft Windows Server 2003 operating system. Which of the following LPPs are required to be installed on the iSeries to do this?
A. 5722-TC1 *BASE TCP/IP Connectivity Utilities
B. 5722-AC3 Cryptographic Access Provider
C. 5722-XE1 iSeries Access for Windows
D. 5722-DG1 HTTP Server for iSeries
Answer: A

9. A customer has found an Intel Linux application that they would like to implement. How can this application be integrated with their iSeries and IXA environment?
A. Use the INSLNXSVR command to install Linux on their IXA and xSeries server.
B. Create an iSeries guest partition and *GUEST NWSD for a Linux installation on the iSeries.
C. Install Windows 2000 and the VMware GSX version to support a Linux partition under the Windows 2000 host operating system.
D. Install Windows 2000 and install the LINE (Linux Emulator) application to allow Linux programs to run within their Windows 2000 server.
Answer: A

10. An IXA-attached xSeries with two LAN cards is configured on two different networks. Client workstations from one network lose connection to the xSeries, and the network administrator suspects the xSeries hardware. How can it be determined whether the xSeries hardware is functioning properly?
A. Check the light path diagnostic LED’s on the xSeries server.
B. Use the iSeries work problem menus to run diagnostics over the hardware path.
C. Look in the QVNAVARY job log for error messages relating to the *NWSD hardware.
D. Use Hardware Service Manager in Service Tools to determine if the xSeries Ethernet adapter is operational.
Answer: A

11. A customer with an i810 server has an IXS installed. The Windows administrator needs to be notified of errors. Which of the following can provide this functionality?
A. Create an iSeries NetServer file share against the Windows event logs.
B. Write an program to monitor the errors in the /QIBM/ProdData/NTAP/logs directory.
C. Set up an iSeries Navigator Management Central monitor for the Windows event logs.
D. Configure the Windows event log to be mirrored to an iSeries message queue and monitor this queue.
Answer: D

12. A customer used the INSWNTSVR command with the Terminal Services parameter *TSENABLE to allow for off-site monitoring of their server. Four months later the customer can no longer make a Terminal Services connection. What action should be taken to restore the Terminal Services connection?
A. End and restart Terminal Services on the server.
B. Reinstall the Terminal Services client on the PC.
C. Shut down and restart the Integrated Windows Server.
D. Change the Terminal Services mode to Remote Administration mode.
Answer: D

13. A customer is migrating an existing Microsoft Windows 2000 server to an IXS. The existing system has a single 60GB hard drive that is 50% used for user data. When the IXS is installed, the customer would like to allow for 120GB of disk user data. How much iSeries disk space will be required for this drive in the IXS installation?
A. 30GB
B. 60GB
C. 90GB
D. 120GB
Answer: D

14. An i825 upgrade to add a 2892-002 (2.0 GHz) IXS with two FC #5701 (1Gb LAN) adapters is being planned. How many PCI slots are required for the IXS and LAN adapters?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

15. An iSeries customer with IXS cards installed in systems at three remote locations has just completed installation of the current Cumulative fix package. A Windows integration code Service Pack is included in this package. Which of the following methods will allow the administrator to install the Windows integration code Service Pack on the remote IXS servers in the least amount of time?
A. On each system use
‘GO PTF option 8′
to apply the appropriate PTFs to product 5722WSV
B. Contact each site and have the local administrator run
‘Start/Programs/IBM iSeries/Integration
for Windows servers’
C. Use the Management Central task scheduler to submit a remote command
‘D:AS400NTMASTERSETUP.EXE’
to each of the IXS servers
D. Using iSeries Navigator open
‘Network/Windows Administration/Integrated xSeries Servers’
and select
‘Server Integration Software/Install Latest Service Pack’
for each of the systems with IXS installed
Answer: D

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Exam : Cisco 642-731
Title : Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey

1. Which value is NOT supported by Cisco Spectrum Expert, when checking for RF coverage?
A. access point received-signal strength level
B. spectrum utilization
C. client data rate
D. in-band radio frequency interference
Answer: C

2. To which parameter should the access point be set during a site survey?
A. transmit only
B. diversity
C. receive only
D. single isolated antenna
Answer: B

3. Construction of a new automobile parts manufacturing facility has recently been completed. The facility IT manager wants to deploy voice over WLAN. During your initial walkthrough, you observe numerous highly reflective surfaces on the manufacturing equipment and in the building construction itself. What potential problem exists that should be accounted for during your site survey?
A. LOS modulation
B. multipath distortion
C. RF signal absorption
D. RF signal attenuation
E. Fresnel zone impedance
Answer: B

4. Which is NOT part of a typical wireless site survey?
A. implementation suggestions
B. access point locations
C. security requirements
D. access point mounting methods
Answer: C

5. What are two objectives of a pre-site survey walkthrough? (Choose two.)
A. identify potential problem areas
B. define intended coverage areas
C. assess compliance with local building codes
D. determine the final location of APs and antennas
E. identify sources of RF signal attenuation and RF interference
Answer: AB

6. How many access points will a Cisco 7600 Series Router with six installed Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Wireless Services Modules support?
A. 300
B. 448
C. 664
D. 1800
E. 2400
Answer: D

7. If there is an existing 802.11g WLAN at a site, which service can be provided without conducting a new site survey?
A. add a new 802.11a WLAN
B. increase the Layer 2 and Layer 3 security of the WLAN
C. increase the throughput for the wireless clients
D. add new services (such as voice) over the WLAN
Answer: B

8. Which statement is true when using a Cisco Wireless Mesh Networking Solution?
A. The backhaul link is dynamic 1 to 54 Mb/s.
B. The backhaul link is typically a fixed value.
C. The backhaul link uses DAS antennas.
D. The backhaul link uses antenna multiplexing.
E. The backhaul link does not rely on fade margin.
Answer: B

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缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

Examsoon
部分最新免费642-436认证题库
:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新642-436考试题库)

 
 
Exam : Cisco 642-436
Title : Cisco Voice over IP (CVOICE)

1. Refer to the exhibit for IP addresses and telephone numbers. You are working with a customer opening a small sales office in Atlanta. You want the user in Atlanta to be able to dial into the PBX in New York over the IP WAN. The New York PBX uses ground start, a two-wire operation, and DTMF dialing.
Choose the correct FXO port configuration commands for New York.
A. voice-port 1/0/0
signal ground-start
operation 2-wire
dial-type dtmf
B. voice-port 1/1/1
destination 2015551212
signal ground-start
operation 2-wire
type 1
dial-type dtmf
C. voice port 1/0/0
session target ipv4:172.16.1.1
destination 2015551212
signal ground-start
operation 2-wire
dial-type dtmf
D. voice port 1/0/0
session target ipv4:172.16.1.1
source 2015551212
signal wink-start
operation 2-wire
dial-type dtmf
Answer: A

2. Which path selection mechanism lets you choose either the even or odd channels first?
A. hunt groups
B. trunk groups
C. tailend hopoff
D. Call Admission Control
Answer: B

3. Refer to the exhibit.
Lighthorse Equine Management would like to investigate converging voice and data on their existing T1 Frame Relay WAN link between New York and Atlanta. Currently the following list of applications are consuming no more bandwidth than what is listed on this segment of the network.
T1 link 1536 kbps
e-mail 75 kbps
internet 200 kbps
Oracle 500 kbps
FTP 250 kbps
Total 1025 kbps
The customer has allocated 25% of the WAN link for routing updates and other overhead. They would like to increase the number of samples encapsulated in each PDU to 40 ms. You have calculated 6 bytes of overhead for Frame Relay, no cRTP, and the use of the G.711 codec.
How many simultaneous calls could be placed on this link?
A. 0 calls
B. 1 call
C. 2 calls
D. no more than 5 calls
E. no more than 10 calls
F. no more than 20 calls
Answer: B

4. Refer to the exhibit. Users are not able to complete a call from 678-555-1212 to 770-555-11 What is the correct diagnosis for the problem?
A. incorrect destination-pattern in router 1
B. incorrect POTS dial-peer statement in router 2
C. incorrect session-target statement in router 2
D. incorrect port statement in router 1 pots dial peer
E. missing no digit-strip on the voip dial peer in router 1
Answer: A

5. Refer to the exhibit. You have been asked to configure a dial peer on R2 that will match only the extensions of the four telephones attached. Which dial-peer statement will you use?
A. dial-peer voice 1 pots
destination-pattern 5552.[0-5]0
B. dial-peer voice 1 pots
destination pattern 5552[5-6].0
C. dial-peer voice 1 pots
destination-pattern 555[2-5][56]
D. dial-peer voice 1 pots
destination-pattern 5552[5-6][05]0
Answer: D

6. At what point does the MGCP call agent release the setup of the call path to the residential gateways?
A. after the call agent has been notified that an event occurred at the source residential gateway
B. after the call agent has been notified of an event and has instructed the source residential gateway to create a connection
C. does not release call path setup
D. after the call agent has sent a connection request to both the source and destination and has relayed a modify-connection request to the source so that the source and destination can set up the call path
E. after the call agent has forwarded session description protocol information to the destination from the source and has sent a modify connection to the destination and a create-connection request to the source
Answer: D

7. Which dial plan characteristic shows the most obvious improvement by dropping a number translation step?
A. availability
B. post-dial delay
C. scalability
D. hierarchical design
Answer: B

8. When setting up a VoIP call, what is the first thing a gateway router tries to match to a dialed number?
A. call leg
B. IP route
C. session target
D. destination pattern
Answer: D

9. Which option is true concerning the MGCP call agent?
A. acts only as a recorder of call details
B. provides only call signaling and call setup
C. manages all aspects of the call and voice stream
D. monitors the quality of each call after setup
Answer: B

10. Refer to the exhibit. A QoS strategy has already been deployed on the LAN. Choose three WAN QoS best practices that should be used over the WAN link. (Choose three.)
A. Implement NBAR.
B. Implement admission control.
C. Mark voice traffic as EF in DSCP.
D. Mark voice traffic highest priority in 802.1p.
E. Use cRTP to maximize bandwidth utilization.
F. Configure access switches to trust traffic from IP phones.
Answer: BCE

11. Refer to the exhibit. Highland Park Property Development is integrating a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express system with the existing PBX via an E1 QSIG trunk. After the initial configuration, no calls can be placed from IP phones to PBX phones. How can this problem be resolved?
A. Increase the ISDN T302 timer to allow more time for call setup.
B. Add the command isdn negotiate-bchan to the serial interface.
C. Add the command isdn contiguous-bchan to the serial interface.
D. Change the channel selection order from descending to ascending.
Answer: B

12. The SJ local zone contains a gatekeeper that controls two gateways, SJ1 and SJ2. Both gateways provide access to area code 408. Which two command strings should be entered into the gatekeeper to give the SJ2 gateway priority over the SJ1 gateway? (Choose two.)
A. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ1
B. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ2
C. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 10 SJ1
D. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 10 SJ2
E. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 0 SJ2, 10 SJ1
F. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ1, 10 SJ2
Answer: AD

13. Refer to the exhibit. Your customer wants to converge the existing PBX network with the IP network. The three remote offices have various types of PBXs. The customer is using a combination of tie-lines and trunks to connect the PBXs today.
Which kind of connection should be implemented to allow calls to be placed from 201-555-1000 to 727-555-1000 so that when the call is completed, network resources are returned for other uses?
A. PLAR
B. trunk
C. tie-line
D. answer-mode
Answer: C

14. Refer to the exhibit. When extension 201-555-1000 dials 404-555-1200, how are the digits manipulated in R1 so that they are presented correctly at R2?
A. The outbound VoIP dial peer is matched and all digits are sent.
B. The digits 404-555 are stripped off before matching the outbound POTS dial peer.
C. The digits 404-555 are stripped off by the connection trunk and R2 receives only 1200.
D. R1 collects the 1200 and prepends the tie-line digits 404555. That number is matched to a VoIP dial peer and sent to the appropriate address.
Answer: A

15. Refer to the exhibit. The Carmichael caller dials the site access code for Merrimack (6) followed by the four-digit extension number of the destination phone (0124). If the call is going to go across the IP WAN, which action will have to be taken?
A. Translate 50124 to 5125550124.
B. Strip the site access code and send four digits.
C. Strip the site access code and prepend 1512555.
D. Do nothing because the site access code matches the last five digits of the target number.
E. Strip the site access code, send four digits, then prepend the access code when it reaches the Merrimack gateway.
Answer: B

2009年08月30日

免费HP0-841学习资料

Filed under: HP — admin @ 8:57 pm

最新HP0-841考试题库

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HP0-841 考试是 HP 公司的 Designing and Implementing HP SAN Solutions 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的 HP0-841 权威考试题库软件是 HP 认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 HP0-841考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

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Exam : HP HP0-841
Title : Designing and Implementing HP SAN Solutions

1. What is the internal M-series switch latency of a HP Fibre Channel switch?
A. between 1us and 2us maximum
B. 3us
C. 5us
D. 33us
E. 650us
Answer: A

2. What is the correct statement about zoning in an interoperable fabric?
A. WWPN zoning is the only allowed method.
B. A mixture of domain ID, port number and WWPN zoning is allowed.
C. Domain ID and port number zoning are the only allowed methods.
D. Zoning is not allowed. The only way to segment a fabric is using the VSAN technology of C-Series switches.
Answer: A

3. Which statement applies to trunking on B-Series switches?
A. Oversubsciption is impossible with trunking.
B. If one ISL of a trunk fails, the whole trunk fails.
C. Trunking increases the availability because an I/O is not interrupted, even if the master ISL of a trunk fails.
D. Trunking is more effecient than individual ISLs because it is less probable that congestion will be experienced.
Answer: D

4. What is the maximum distance per cable segment using 9/125 micron single-mode cable and long wavelength 2 Gb SFPs?
A. 1 km
B. 5 km
C. 10 km
D. 35 km
E. 100 km
Answer: C

5. What is throughput?
A. the number of requests processed per second
B. the number of I/O requests satisfied per unit of time
C. the amount of time a device needs to process a request
D. the time a device takes to process a request from issuance to completion
Answer: B

6. What can you do to minimize communication delays between a host and its storage subsystem?
A. cross couple multiple ISLs
B. ensure there is at least one switch hop
C. connect the two devices to the same switch
D. configure a maximum of four active host ports per ISL
Answer: C

7. What is a Fibre Channel fabric?
A. one or more switches connected together, sharing the same name and routing table
B. two or more switches connected together, sharing the same name and routing table
C. one or more switches connected together, each having its own independent name and routing table
D. two or more switches connected together, each having its own independent name and routing table
Answer: A

8. The sum of the wait time (in queues) and the service time is _____.
A. data rate
B. request rate
C. response time
D. utilization time
Answer: C

9. What are HP SAN management strategies? (Choose two.)
A. automated policy based management
B. policy based backup using the storage management appliance
C. automatic performance optimization using sophisticated high performance management agents
D. storage virtualization using in-band management functionality of the storage management appliance
E. simplified, centralized storage management using standardized web based GUIs residing on a storage management appliance
Answer: AE

10. Three LUNs, sda, sdb and sdc, are connected to a Linux server. You shutdown the server and physically remove sdb. What happens after the server reboots?
A. The LUNs sda and sdc are accessible, LUN sdb is not listed in the device scan.
B. The LUN sda is accessible, LUN sdc is now sdb and accessible using this name.
C. The LUNs sda and sdc are accessible, LUN sdb is listed as offline in the device scan.
D. The LUNs sda and sdc are accessible, LUN sdb is renamed into sdvb simulating a virtual device.
Answer: B

11. What characteristic has the greatest impact on disk performance?
A. bus type
B. drive latency
C. I/O transfer size
D. upgrade from a 1Gb/s HBA to a 2Gb/s HBA
Answer: B

12. Which HP SAN Management tool is a highly scalable, Java-based application that manages multiple B-Series switches and fabrics in real-time?
A. HP StorageWorks Fabric Manager
B. Management Appliance Software v2.1
C. HP OpenView Storage Node Manager
D. HP StorageWorks High Availability Fabric Manager (HAFM)
E. HP OpenView Storage Management Appliance III and HP OpenView Storage Management Appliance software v2.1
Answer: A

13. What are the three types of fabric zoning on B-series switches? (Choose three.)
A. static zoning
B. software zoning
C. hardware zoning
D. mixmode zoning
E. QuickLoop zoning
Answer: BCD

14. In Web Tools, which is a valid switch state?
A. down
B. marginal
C. segmented
D. reconfiguring
Answer: A

15. In a single fabric, when multiple paths exist between a host and its storage, which statement is true?
A. The result could be an unstable fabric.
B. Load sharing is automatically set to static.
C. The FSPF protocol determines best route.
D. The path used is determined by port priority.
Answer: C

16. Which three infrastructure components are supported from multiple vendors in an HP Open heterogenous SAN? (Choose three.)
A. hubs
B. switches
C. ATM gateways
D. storage systems
E. operating systems
Answer: BDE

17. A company is running an application that is READ intensive. They are more concerned with effective READ performance than WRITE performance. They have a limited number of disks so they need to minimize RAID overhead. What type of RAID should they use?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 1+0
D. RAID 5
Answer: D

18. In the SAN configuration, assume a goal of redundancy for everything. How many Storage Management Appliances are needed?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B

19. Which software module of HP OpenView Storage Area Manager (SAM) can you use to control the access of a managed host to a managed storage device?
A. Storage Builder
B. Storage Allocater
C. Storage Accountant
D. Storage Node Manager
Answer: B

20. Which three operating systems are supported in an HP heterogeneous SAN? (Choose three.)
A. HP NSK
B. IBM AIX
C. IBM OS400
D. Tru64 UNIX
E. Microsoft Windows 2003 Server
Answer: BDE

最新000-842认证考试题库下载

Filed under: IBM — admin @ 7:01 pm

最新000-842考试题库

Examsoon最新000-842认证真题,真题覆盖率达到90%以上。考不过全额退款保障,让您认证无忧。绝对真实来自Examsoon的高质量题库。

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000-842 考试是 IBM 公司的 Rational Functional Tester for Java 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的000-842权威考试题库软件是IBM认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon绝对保证第一次参加 000-842 考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

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Exam : IBM 000-842
Title : Rational Functional Tester for Java

1. What should the tester open to view Test Objects, Main Data Area and Recognition Data?
A. the test script
B. the test comparator
C. the object map
D. the log viewer
Answer: B

2. You must _____ a script with a datapool before substituting literal values in the script with references to datapool variables.
A. share
B. associate
C. run
D. disassociate
Answer: B

3. Given an existing TestManager Rational Test project, what are the steps to log results to TestManager?
A. from TestManager, create a new Test Script Type for RFT, then from RFT, select the Functional Test logging preferences to TestManager
B. from RFT, select the Functional Test logging preferences to TestManager, then select the TestManager project when you run an RFT test
C. from RFT, associate the Rational Test Project with the RFT project, then select the Functional Test logging preferences to TestManager
D. from the Rational Administrator, associate the RFT project to the Rational Test Project, then from RFT, select the Functional Test logging preferences to TestManager
Answer: C

4. How do you stop recording?
A. click the Stop Recording button on the recording toolbar
B. end the application under test
C. close RFT
D. close the recording monitor
Answer: A

5. What must you do before editing the datapool using an external application?
A. make it a public datapool
B. make it a private datapool
C. export it to a .csv file
D. import it from a .csv file
Answer: C

6. Out of the box, what are the different options for logging RFT tests?
A. HTML, text, custom, TestManager, and none
B. HTML, text, TPTP, TestManager, and none
C. TestManager, CQTM, TPTP, HTML, and none
D. HTML, PDF, text, TestManager, and none
Answer: B

7. Functional Tester allows you to import an external datapool from which of the following ? (Choose three.)
A. an external .csv file
B. another Functional Tester datapool
C. an existing TestManager datapool
D. an access (.mdb) file
Answer: ABC

8. Which statement is true about an RFT test datapool?
A. It is exclusive for only one test script.
B. It is a collection of related data records.
C. It is automatically generated during script record.
D. It is a collection of related test scripts.
Answer: B

9. How do you perform image verification in a test?
A. select Perform Image Verification Point from the Verification Point and Action Wizard
B. select the Perform Properties Verification Point from the Verification Point and Action Wizard, then select only the .src or other property for the image
C. download and install the RFT Enhancement Pack plug-in from IBM Rational Support
D. download and install the Image Comparator for Rational Functional Tester 2003.06 utility from developerWorks
Answer: D

10. Which three actions are possible with RFT? (Choose three.)
A. use a wizard to substitute literals with datapool variables
B. substitute literals in verification points with datapool variables
C. create a datapool while recording a data-driven script
D. create scripts in c#
Answer: ABC

11. A recording is started by:
A. Entering script_record on the command line
B. creating a script and then pressing the record button in the RFT application
C. starting the application under test
D. Starting RFT
Answer: B

12. How do you start the application under test?
A. use the Windows Start menu
B. simply begin recording
C. open a command line and start the application by typing its name
D. click the Start Application button on the recording toolbar
Answer: D

13. Not including TestManager or custom logging, how can you organize RFT test results?
A. define and follow a naming convention for all test logs
B. define and follow a naming convention for all logs and log subfolders
C. create as many folders in the *_logs project as needed and drag logs into the appropriate folders
D. create additional log projects which are associated with the primary RFT project, (for example, <project>_acceptance_logs)
Answer: A

14. What is one way to insert data-driven commands into the test script?
A. use the Insert Data Driven Commands button while recording
B. use the Insert Data Driven Commands button while executing
C. the commands are generated automatically while importing the datapool
D. use the super helper class after recording
Answer: A

15. When is the best time to use data-driven testing?
A. when the test only needs to be run once
B. when the test steps change based on the test input data
C. when the test must be run multiple times with different data
D. when the test requires a lot of manual data entry
Answer: C

16. What can be tested when recording a verification point?
A. an objects data only
B. an objects data or properties only
C. whether or not the object is working
D. an objects data, properties, or existence
Answer: D

17. What must you do to view a comparator of a failed verification point from an RFT text log?
A. open a web browser and browse to open the file: <project_path> <log_name><log_vp_name>.rftvd for the verification point you want to view
B. right-click on the test log and select Failed Verification Points from the right-click menu, then select the verification point you want to view
C. open the test log, right-click on the verification point line you want to view and select View Results from the right-click menu
D. log results in another format since you cannot open a comparator from a text log
Answer: B

18. What can you use to select an object as a verification point?
A. the object finder, the object picker, or the object browser
B. the main object browser, the test object browser, or the extra object browser
C. the object finder, the test object browser, or the delay method
D. the delay method, the scripting method, or the pointer method
Answer: C

19. While recording a script, the recording monitor _____.
A. appears at the conclusion of recording
B. is only displayed on the toolbar
C. does not appear
D. displays a message for each action
Answer: D

20. What will the following CallScript do? CallScript (myScript, null, DP_ALL)
A. cause the script to run an infinite number of times
B. cause the script to iterate through the entire datapool
C. cause the script to run through 100 datapool values
D. cause myScript to always pass
Answer: B

Examsoon
000-842学习资料

Examsoon
000-842题库,不同于Testiinside 000-842、certtinside 000-842、Pass4side000-842、Testking000-842、Pass4sure000-842的题库资料,是全球IT认证资料供应力量,以高科技的仿真效果,完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题,保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

Examsoon 000-842 的优势

1.Examsoon 模拟测试题具有最高的专业技术含量,只供具有相关专业知识的专家和学者学习和研究之用。

2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权,我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。

3.如果你使用 Examsoon模拟测试,我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功,否则,我们将全额退款!

4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前,请检测联接,可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性。

000-842 考试是 IBM 公司的 Rational Functional Tester for Java 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的 000-842 权威考试题库软件是 IBM 认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 000-842考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

Rational Functional Tester for Java 认证作为全球IT领域专家 IBM 热门认证之一,是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。 如果你正在准备 000-842 考试,为 IBM Rational Functional Tester for Java认证做最后冲刺,又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟, Examsoon希望能助你成功。

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部分最新免费250-312认证题库
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Exam : Symantec 250-312
Title : Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server

1. Which two alert category types can be disabled? (Choose two.)
A. Warning alerts
B. Attention Required alerts
C. Error alerts
D. E-mail Failure alerts
E. Informational alerts
Answer: AE

2. Refer to the exhibit.
Annual accounting history must be archived for 120 days and marketing history must be archived for 90 days.
Which setting allows reporting for marketing and accounting history?
A. change Keep alert history to 90 days
B. change Keep job logs to 120 days
C. change Keep job history selection for keep job history to match current OPP
D. change Keep job history for selected number of days to 120
Answer: C

3. A financial institution has a two-hour backup window and is required to restore individual e-mails within 20 minutes if their Microsoft Exchange Server fails.
Which Service Level Agreement (SLA) meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO) requirements?
A. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
B. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
C. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
D. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
Answer: B

4. A large enterprise provides a six-hour backup window at night, but requires failed systems to be restored immediately.
Which SLA meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO) requirements?
A. RPO 0, RTO 0
B. RPO 6 hours, RTO 6 hours
C. RPO 6 hours, RTO 0
D. RPO 0, RTO 6 hours
Answer: C

5. Refer to the exhibit.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers option is required to manage all backups from the data center?
A. Shared Storage Option
B. Active Directory Recovery Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Executive Desktop Option
Answer: A

6. Which two Calendar Schedule settings can you use to schedule a job to run on the first and fifteenth of every month? (Choose two.)
A. Specific Dates
B. Recurring Week Days
C. Recurring Days of the Month
D. Day Interval
E. Time Window
Answer: AC

7. What does the Backup Exec Environment Check utility verify to ensure that the installation process can complete successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Is a previous version of Backup Exec installed?
B. Is there enough storage space for disk-based backups?
C. Is an SMTP Server available?
D. Are there Microsoft SQL database account privileges?
E. Are there sufficient logon account privileges?
Answer: AE

8. Which three statements are true about the attributes of a device pool? (Choose three.)
A. The All Available Drives device pool can be deleted.
B. A drive can belong to more than one device pool.
C. A device pool can contain different types of drives.
D. Device priority can be set on a device pool.
E. Multiple backup jobs can be targeted to the same device pool.
Answer: BCE

9. Refer to the exhibit.
A backup administrator must recover all Microsoft Word documents (.doc) created after January 1, 2005 from the F:CEO directory, including subfolders.
How is this accomplished?
A. enter F:CEO for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for From box; enter today’s date for To box; select Include for Type
B. enter F:CEO for the Path; enter *.* for the File; enter 1/1/2005 for the From Box; leave the To box blank; select Include for Type
C. enter F:*.* for the Path; enter CEO*.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for the From box; enter today’s date for the To box; select Exclude for Type
D. enter * for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for the From box; enter today’s date for the To box; select Include for Type
Answer: A

10. A web-based retailer’s mission-critical servers must be online constantly, providing zero downtime in which to run a backup.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Advanced Disk-based Backup Option
B. Continuous Protection Server Option
C. Volume Shadow Copy Services Option
D. Central Admin Server Option
Answer: B

11. Which compression type produces the least network traffic in a multi-server backup environment?
A. compression with de-duplication
B. software compression
C. hardware compression
D. compression with encryption
Answer: B

12. Which media set property defines the amount of time that data can be added to a piece of media?
A. Append Period
B. Overwrite Protection Period
C. Retention Period
D. Media Update Period
Answer: A

13. A global company must use a "follow-the-sun" backup strategy, which means that the backup servers are constantly performing backups. The SLA requires that both DHCP and Active Directory remain available.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Data Protection Option
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Agent for Enterprise Vault Option
Answer: B

14. A single tape-drive robotic library is attached to the Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers (Backup Exec) media server but fails to display in the Backup Exec Devices window. The library is in the correct location under the Robotic Libraries tree, but instead of listing the drive underneath it, there is a listing of Unknown Drive. The drive name is listed under Stand-alone Drives.
What must be done to solve this problem?
A. Restart the Backup Exec Server service and scan for new devices in Windows Device Manager.
B. Power down the Backup Exec Server and the attached robotic library, then power up the robotic library before powering up the Backup Exec Server.
C. Run the Backup Exec Device Configuration Wizard and drag the correct drive name to the position under the robotic library.
D. Because the robotic library is unserialized and not supported by Backup Exec, replace the robotic library with a supported robotic library.
Answer: C

15. Which two statements are accurate regarding full backups and copy backups? (Choose two.)
A. Full backups and copy backups of the same resource include the same data.
B. Full backups and copy backups are different names for the exact same backup method.
C. Full backups and copy backups can be configured to reset the archive bit of backed up files.
D. Full backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; copy backups are unable to reset the archive bit.
E. Copy backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; full backups are unable to reset the archive bit.
Answer: AD

16. Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers (Backup Exec) utility can be used to change the user account listed in the Backup Exec services?
A. Services
B. BEServices
C. ServicesMgr
D. BEDIAG
Answer: C

17. Which three summaries can be found on the Job Monitor’s System Summary view? (Choose three.)
A. device and media summary
B. alerts summary
C. licensing summary
D. installed patch summary
E. job summary
Answer: ABE

18. A medium-sized paper company with several remote offices deploys Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers Central Admin Server Option (CASO) in their data center. The company’s SLA requires that the backup environment be restored to an alternate location in the event of a data center outage.
Which CASO catalog location option meets this company’s SLA?
A. Centralized Catalog
B. Distributed Catalog
C. Replicated Catalog
D. Exported Catalog
Answer: C

19. An attempt to install the Remote Agent for Linux and UNIX Servers on a UNIX server fails.
Which log can be reviewed to determine the cause of the installation failure?
A. /var/tmp/vxif/installralus/installralus.log
B. /var/logs/ralus/installralus.log
C. /install/symantec/logs/ralus.log
D. /usr/openv/symantec/logs/install.log
Answer: A

20. Which two factors define a backup Service Level Agreement (SLA)? (Choose two.)
A. Recovery Point Objective
B. Recovery Time Objective
C. Recovery Method
D. Recovery Retention Period
E. Recovery Priority Objective
Answer: AB

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Filed under: HP — admin @ 9:54 am

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Examsoon
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:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新HP0-195考试题库)

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Examsoon HP0-195 的优势

1.Examsoon 模拟测试题具有最高的专业技术含量,只供具有相关专业知识的专家和学者学习和研究之用。

2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权,我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。

3.如果你使用 Examsoon模拟测试,我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功,否则,我们将全额退款!

4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前,请检测联接,可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性。

HP0-195 考试是 HP 公司的 HP Modular Disk Array and SureStore 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的 HP0-195 权威考试题库软件是 HP 认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 HP0-195考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

HP Modular Disk Array and SureStore 认证作为全球IT领域专家 HP 热门认证之一,是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。 如果你正在准备 HP0-195 考试,为 HP HP Modular Disk Array and SureStore认证做最后冲刺,又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟, Examsoon希望能助你成功。

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2、售后服务第一!我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功,必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务,只有客户满意了,我们才能发展。客户至上是我们Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨;

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4、本站HP0-195题库根据HP0-195考试的变化动态更新,在厂家考题每次发生变化后,我们承诺2天内更新HP0-195题库。确保HP0-195考题的覆盖率始终都在95%以上;我们提供2种 HP0-195 考题大师版本供你选择。

5、软件版本HP0-195 考试题库
优点:具有学习模式,测试模式,线上自动升级
缺点:仅限固定电脑使用,不可打印为文本,只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式HP0-195考试题库
优点:不需下载安装软件,方便用户打印和携带,但也带来了可随意制的弊端,因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的HP0-195题库,一经发现立即取消其升级资格,且不予退款。
缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

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