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2009年06月30日

免费920-133学习资料

Filed under: Nortel — admin @ 7:31 pm

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Exam : Nortel 920-133
Title : NNCSS Baystack Switching

1. You have installed a new BayStack 460-24T switch into a customer’s network and are using the QoS Wizard to configure the QoS settings for various IP traffic flows. Which two IP applications can you directly choose in the QoS Wizard to prioritize inbound frames based on traffic type? (Choose two.)
A. E-mail (SMTP)
B. File Transfer (FTP)
C. Multicasting (IGMP)
D. Trivial File Transfer (TFTP)
E. Network Management (SNMP)
Answer: AB

2. A BayStack 450-24T switch will be added to an existing stack of two BayStack 470-24T switches. The software Release running on the BayStack 450-24T switch is compatible with the software Release running on the BayStack 470-24T switches. To complete the stack creation successfully, which two configuration changes are necessary? (Choose two.)
A. Set the Unit Select switch on the BayStack 450-24T to the "Off" position.
B. Set the Unit Select switch on the BayStack 450-24T to "Base" ("On" position).
C. Set the Stack Mode for all BayStack 470-24T switches to Hybrid and then reset the stack.
D. Cable the BayStack 450-24T switch into the stack, power off all units, and then power up the stack.
E. Set the Stack Mode for the Base BayStack 470-24T switch to Hybrid and leave the other BayStack 470-24T switch as Pure.
Answer: AC

3. Given the following information:
A customer has a stack of four BayStack BPS switches configured in pure mode and functioning properly.
Two BayStack 450-24T switches are added to the stack to increase its capacity and the BayStack BPS stack operation mode is changed to hybrid.
After rebooting the stack, it appears to be functioning properly but, all VLAN configurations have been lost.
What is the most likely cause of this issue and which action should you take to resolve it?
A. A BayStack 450-24T has incorrectly been assigned as the base unit. Define a BayStack BPS as the base unit and power cycle the stack to resolve the issue.
B. The Interoperability Software Version Number (ISVN) of the BayStack 450-24T software does NOT match the ISVN of the BayStack BPS software. Upgrade the BayStack 450-24T software to resolve the issue.
C. A hybrid stack only supports 64 VLANs. If more are defined on a pure BayStack BPS stack, when you change to hybrid mode you will lose all the VLANs. A maximum of 64 VLANs can be re-entered to resolve the issue.
D. When changing from a pure to a hybrid stack, the VLAN configuration will always be lost. Before changing to hybrid mode, the configuration file must be downloaded to a TFTP server, and then uploaded after changing to hybrid mode.
Answer: C

4. What is required to apply traffic shaping to an uplink connection from a BayStack 470-48T switch to the Passport 8600 using the Web-based Management System Interface?
A. a Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)
B. NO additional equipment is required
C. a Gigabit Interface Connector (GBIC)
D. a mini Gigabit Interface Connector (GBIC)
Answer: C

5. Port-based Virtual LAN (VLAN) 10 has been configured on a standalone BayStack 5510-24T switch. Port 5 must now be added to VLAN 10. What are the steps necessary to add Port 5 to VLAN 10 in Java Device Manager (JDM)?
A. From the main menu choose Edit > VLANs . Double click on Port Members for VLAN 10 and add Port 5 to the list of members. Finally, click Apply .
B. From the main menu choose VLAN > VLANs . Double click on Port Members for VLAN 10 , and add Port 5 to the list of members. Finally, click Apply .
C. Highlight Port 5 on the device and from the main menu choose Edit>Port . Now click on the VLAN tab and in the DefaultVlanId field enter 10 . Finally, click Apply .
D. From the main menu choose Application > VLAN > VLAN Configuration . In the VLAN Table section, click the Modify icon for VLAN 10 . Now add Port 5 to the list of members and click Apply .
Answer: B

6. Given the following information:
A BayStack 460-24T-PWR switch is being installed.
The switch will be fully populated with all devices requiring Power over Ethernet (PoE).
The switch has been connected to both internal and external power sources.
The switch will be configured through web-based management.
Once you access the BayStack 460 via the BS460_24T_PWR(config)#poe poe-dc-source command, which configuration will provide the most power to supply PoE to the connected devices?
A. nes – Set DC power source from NES
B. rpsu – Set DC power source from the rpsu
C. baystack10 – Set DC power source from BayStack 10
D. unit – Set power pairs of another unit in a stack
Answer: A

7. Given the following information:
A BayStack 460-24T-PWR switch is delivering Power over Ethernet (PoE) to a number of devices connected to it.
Currently, all devices that are connected to the switch and require PoE are functioning properly.
The switch is connected to both internal and external power sources.
The external power source is a BayStack 10 Power Supply Unit (PSU).
Currently, "DC Source Type" is set to "BayStack 10" (BayStack 10 PSU) and "DC Source Configuration" is set to "RPSU" (Redundant Power Supply Unit) on the switch.
A new device that requires PoE is connected to the switch and fails to power on.
The "DTE Power Source" LED for the port used to connect the device then begins to blink amber. Assume that prior to connecting the device to the switch it was tested in the lab and is known to be functioning correctly.
What is the most likely cause of this issue and which action should you take to resolve it?
A. The port is administratively disabled. Administratively enable the port to correct the issue.
B. NO Data Terminating Equipment (DTE) has been detected on the port. Check the port and correct a cabling fault to resolve the issue.
C. There is a power fault or short circuit on the port. The port or the cable may be faulty. Connect the device to a different port. If functioning normally, check the cables and correct a possible cabling fault to resolve the issue.
D. The Data Terminating Equipment (DTE) has been detected on the port, but there is insufficient power to turn the device on. Change the "DC Source Configuration" setting to "Power Sharing" to provide more PoE for the switch.
Answer: D

8. A customer with a BayStack 470-24T switch wants to configure MAC address-based security. Given that they can create up to 10 MAC Destination Addresses (DA) to filter, how are all packets with specified DAs treated?
A. All packets with specified DAs are dropped.
B. All packets with specified DAs are dropped based on ingress port.
C. All packets with specified DAs are dropped based on VLAN membership.
D. All packets with specified DAs are dropped based on source address intrusion.
Answer: A

9. How do you configure VLAN port membership on a BayStack 425 10/100/1000 series switch? (Choose two.)
A. Run the QoS Wizard to create new VLAN port members.
B. Access the VLAN configuration screen of the Console Interface (CI) Menu.
C. Create an ASCII configuration file with the required VLAN membership configuration.
D. Use Java Device Manager (JDM) to make the selected ports members of the VLANs.
Answer: BD

10. On a BayStack 470 switch you need to disable Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping for a customer’s VLAN (100). Using the Console Interface (CI) Menus, how should you accomplish this task?
A. From the VLAN configuration screen disable IGMP proxy for VLAN 100.
B. From the VLAN configuration screen disable IGMP snooping for VLAN 100.
C. From the VLAN configuration screen, configure the VLAN setup of port 100.
D. From the Switch configuration screen choose IGMP configuration and disable IGMP snooping for VLAN 100.
Answer: B

11. A company has three BayStack 450-24T switches. The switches are labeled SW1, SW2 and SW3. Each switch has a BayStack 400-ST1 Cascade Module installed. You have been asked to stack the switches in a stack-down configuration with switch SW1 positioned at the top of the stack. How would you physically connect the cascade cables to each of the switches and set the Unit Selector switch? (Choose two.)
A. Set the Unit Selector switch of SW1 in the up position. Set the Unit Selector switch of SW2 and SW3 in the down position.
B. Set the Unit Selector switch of SW3 in the up position. Set the Unit Selector switch of SW1 and SW2 in the down position.
C. Connect Cascade A Out of SW3 to Cascade A In of SW2. Connect Cascade A Out of SW2 to Cascade A In of SW1. Connect Cascade A Out of SW1 to Cascade A In of SW3.
D. Connect Cascade A Out of SW3 to Cascade A In of SW1. Connect Cascade A Out of SW1 to Cascade A In of SW2. Connect Cascade A Out of SW2 to Cascade A In of SW3.
Answer: AD

12. You are configuring a BayStack 470-48T switch for QoS and it is necessary to implement a meter as follows:
Limit bandwidth utilization to 20 Mbps.
Drop all traffic that exceeds the 20 Mbps threshold.
How do you ensure that traffic that exceeds the 20 Mbps threshold is dropped?
A. When adding the meter to the policy, set Out-of-Profile Action to Drop_Traffic .
B. When defining the Committed Burst Size of the meter, set Maximum Burst Size to 0 kbps .
C. When adding the meter to the interface group, set Threshold-Exceeded-Traffic to Drop .
D. When defining the Committed Burst Size of the meter, set Maximum Burst Size to 0 kbps and Duration to 0 seconds .
Answer: A

13. The library of a large tech school offers a network connection area for free roaming students to connect to the schools network with their portable devices. The BayStack switch supporting this service offers several Enhanced Authentication Protocol (EAP) configured port groups. To maintain this access area for registered students only, the school should assign these ports to which EAP group?
A. EAP Group 1 – Administrative Status set to Auto
B. EAP Group 2 – Administrative Status set to Disabled
C. EAP Group 3 – Administrative Status set to Force Authorized
D. EAP Group 4 – Administrative Status set to Force Unauthorized
Answer: A

14. What is the condition under which the Single Fiber Fault Detection (SFFD) feature should be enabled for BayStack 470 switch? Assume that Nortel Networks devices are at both ends of a gigabit Ethernet fiber link.
A. When both ports making up the link are implemented using the BayStack 450 MDA.
B. When both of the ports making up the link are implemented using the BayStack 470 Gigabit ports.
C. When at least one of the ports making up the link is implemented using a BayStack 470 Gigabit port.
D. When at least one of the ports making up the link is implemented using the BayStack 450 Gigabit MDA.
Answer: C

15. Click the exhibit button.
Given the following BayStack 325-24T switch configuration:
VLAN 10 is a port-based VLAN.
Port 1 is an untagged member of VLAN 10.
Port 5 is a tagged member of VLAN 10.
The device on Port 1 transmits an untagged frame to the device on Port 5. How will an untagged frame be treated when it reaches Port 5 on this switch?
A. It will be discarded when it is received.
B. It will be placed in a hardware-based queue based on Priority 6, it will be tagged, and transmitted out Port 5 with Priority 2.
C. It will be placed in a hardware-based queue based on Priority 6, it will be tagged, and transmitted out Port 5 with Priority 6.
D. It will be placed in a hardware-based queue based on Priority 2, it will be tagged, and transmitted out Port 5 with Priority 2.
Answer: C

免费510-802学习资料

Filed under: Sybase, Inc — admin @ 2:43 pm

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购买510-802考试题库请认准Examsoon标志!切勿因贪便宜而造成不必要的损失和遗憾。下载题库及任何510-802问题请与我站管理员联系!

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510-802题库购买时请一定要认准Examsoon标志,世界第一IT认证资料服务提供商中国服务中心。

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510-802学习资料

Examsoon
510-802题库,不同于Testiinside 510-802、certtinside 510-802、Pass4side510-802、Testking510-802、Pass4sure510-802的题库资料,是全球IT认证资料供应力量,以高科技的仿真效果,完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题,保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

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3.如果你使用 Examsoon模拟测试,我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功,否则,我们将全额退款!

4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前,请检测联接,可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性。

510-802 考试是 Sybase, Inc 公司的 Sybase PowerDesigner Data Modeling Pro. Exam(version 12.1) 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的 510-802 权威考试题库软件是 Sybase, Inc 认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 510-802考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

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优点:不需下载安装软件,方便用户打印和携带,但也带来了可随意制的弊端,因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的510-802题库,一经发现立即取消其升级资格,且不予退款。
缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

Examsoon
部分最新免费510-802认证题库
:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新510-802考试题库)

 
 
Exam : Sybase 510-802
Title : Sybase PowerDesigner Data Modeling Pro. Exam (version 12.1)

1. Where are the naming conventions for objects set?
A. Tools -> General Options
B. Tools -> Display Preferences
C. Tools -> Resources
D. Tools -> Model Options
Answer: D

2. What does "Format" on the Graphics item of the Report Editor allow you to control? (Choose 2)
A. The scale of the diagram image output to the report
B. The type of image output to the report only
C. The font and paragraph placement of the image and caption output to the report
D. The display of the frame around the diagram image output to the report
Answer: AD

3. In the Customize Columns and Filter window, what are the available wild cards? (Choose 2)
A. %
B. *
C. _
D. ?
Answer: BD

4. Which of the following can NOT be set using a template model?
A. Model Options
B. Custom Shapes
C. Display Preferences
D. General Options
Answer: D

5. How would you read the following propagation rule?
A. When an entity attribute is changed, the collection identifier is deleted.
B. When an entity attribute is deleted, the collection identifier is changed.
C. When an identifier is changed, the collection entity attribute is deleted.
D. When an identifier is changed, the collection entity attribute is changed.
Answer: B

6. Which sequence represents the hierarchy display in the Browser?
A. Model -> Folder -> Workspace
B. Workspace -> Folder -> Model
C. Folder -> Workspace -> Model
D. Folder ->Model -> Workspace
Answer: B

7. Which feature allows you to customize a model by creating an association between two meta classes?
A. Custom Form
B. Criterion
C. Extended Collection
D. Extended Attribute
Answer: C

8. Which of the following can NOT be added to a Workspace?
A. Folder
B. Image file
C. Model
D. Report template
E. Workspace
Answer: E

9. PowerDesigner uses ____________ to create Report templates.
A. Word
B. Model Editor
C. Wordpad
D. Report Template Editor
E. Notepad
Answer: D

10. A model has Diagram_1, Diagram_2, Diagram_3. A report contains only the diagramgraphic node. How do I generate a report with diagrams in the order Diagram_2, Diagram_3 and Diagram_1?
A. Report -> Select Objects
B. Right-click Graphics -> Selection
C. Right-click Diagram -> Selection and make your selection Define Sort and Filter Window
D. Right-click Diagram ->? Selection and make your selection from the Select Objects Window
Answer: C

11. Which of the following is FALSE about PowerDesigner’s reporting feature?
A. The Report Editor and the Multi-Model Report Editor have their own windows but share the same graphical interface.
B. You cannot open the Report Template Editor with no model attached to it.
C. PowerDesigner contains a series of predefined structures called templates.
D. The Report Language Editor is an independent module.
Answer: B

12. Which of the following objects are NOT available in a PowerDesigner CDM? (Choose 3)
A. Entity
B. Table
C. Relationship
D. Attribute
E. Key
F. Reference
Answer: BEF

13. Check model errors are displayed in which windows? (Choose 2)
A. Result List
B. Output
C. Diagram
D. Browser
E. Merge Models
F. Check Model Parameters
Answer: AB

14. What are NOT common uses of the Generation Template Language (GTL)?
A. Creating or modifying the DDL generation for an RDBMS
B. Defining the Trigger Template or Template Items
C. Defining tabs and forms for Extended Attributes
D. Creating custom naming convention scripts
Answer: C

15. To choose the columns displayed in a report list item, right-click the list item in the Report Editor and choose the ________ menu entry.
A. Layout
B. Format
C. Selection
D. Edit Title ?Edit Title
Answer: A

16. Which categories are NOT found in General Options? (Choose 2)
A. General
B. Dialog
C. Object View
D. Naming Convention
E. Repository
Answer: CD

17. On the Merging Model window, a user can?On the Merging Model window, a user can
A. use the Change Filter tool to show only deleted objects.
B. place a check in a check box to prevent the change indicated.
C. see the to model on the left side and from model on the right side.
D. right-click a specific line item to remove it from the list.
Answer: A

18. In the Merge Model window, what does a red exclamation mark mean?
A. Object has been created.
B. Object has been modified.
C. Object has been moved.
D. Object has been deleted.
Answer: B

19. PowerDesigner reports support which generation formats?
A. Plain Text
B. HTML
C. RTF
D. XML
E. Tab Delimited Values
F. CSV
Answer: BCDF

20. Customizing your favorite tabs ?
A. persist when the model is closed.
B. returns to default when the model is closed.
C. is defined on a package-per-package basis.
D. is defined on a diagram-per-diagram basis.
Answer: A

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Exam : IBM 000-356
Title : Iseries system command operations v5r2

1. An Operator receives a message that one of the disk drives is bad and needs to be replaced. After notifying the System Administrator, the Operator is directed to make a complete backup of the system. Which of the following commands can be used to back up the entire system?
A. SAV
B. SAVSTG
C. SAVSYS
D. SAVLIB
Answer: B

2. Based on the following message:
Message… : Load form type ‘*STD’ device ITHPLJ4 writer ITHPLJ4. (G B I H R C)
What is the correct response to process this file and continue using standard forms for future jobs?
A. G
B. I
C. C
D. H
Answer: A

3. The clean up options have been set up in the CLEANUP menu. In which IBM supplied subsystem does this job run?
A. The batch subsystem
B. The user work subsystem
C. The controlling subsystem
D. The system work subsystem
Answer: C

4. Which of the following commands is used to save user profiles to a save file in a library that does not exist in the library list?
A. SAVSECDTA DEV(*SAVF) SAVF(SAVF1)
B. SAVSECDTA DEV(*SAVF) SAVF(ABC/SAVF1)
C. SAVSECDTA DEV(*SAVF) SAVF(*LIBL/SAVF1)
D. SAVSECDTA DEV(*SAVF) SAVF(*CURLIB/SAVF1)
Answer: B

5. When changing the job priority for a job that is waiting in a JOBQ, what are the valid values that can be used?
A. Valid values range from 0 through 9, where 0 is the highest priority and 9 is the lowest priority.
B. Valid values range from 0 through 9, where 9 is the highest priority and 0 is the lowest priority.
C. Valid values range from "A" through "Z", where "Z" is the highest priority and "A" is the lowest priority.
D. Valid values range from -100 through -999, where -999 is the highest priority and -100 is the lowest priority.
Answer: A

6. A writer is running and the associated printer is printing. How can an operator determine how many spooled files have not yet printed?
A. Check the writer’s status.
B. Check the output queue’s status.
C. Check the printer’s status messages.
D. Check the jobs in the spool subsystem.
Answer: B

7. In preparation to add a new workstation, an operator needs a list of all local workstations currently attached to controller CTL01. Which command should be used?
A. PRTCTLADR CTLD(CTL01)
B. PRTCTLDEV CTLD(CTL01)
C. PRTDEVADR CTLD(CTL01)
D. DSPDEVADR CTLD(CTL01) OPTION(*PRINT)
Answer: C

8. USERJOBA and USERJOBB were both submitted to a single threaded job queue BATCH1. USERJOBA went active immediately and is a very long running job. The operator needs to move USERJOBB to job queue BATCH2 so it will start running immediately. Which command will accomplish this task?
A. TFRJOB JOB(USERJOBB) OUTQ(*LIBL/BATCH2)
B. CHGJOB JOB(USERJOBB) OUTQ(*LIBL/BATCH2)
C. TFRJOB JOB(USERJOBB) JOBQ(*LIBL/BATCH2)
D. CHGJOB JOB(USERJOBB) JOBQ(*LIBL/BATCH2)
Answer: D

9. A cumulative PTF package needs to be loaded and applied to the primary partition. Which of the following is recommended prior to IPLing the primary partition?
A. Power down all secondary partitions
B. Allocate all processor resources to the primary partition
C. End all interactive subsystems on the secondary partitions
D. Disable the virtual LAN connections between the partitions
Answer: A

10. An operator has been asked to prepare a backup tape to be restored on another iSeries server. Which SAVLIB parameter is used to prepare the tape for the broadest number of iSeries systems?
A. CLEAR(*ALL)
B. ACCPTH(*YES)
C. DTACPR(*YES)
D. USEOPTBLK(*NO)
Answer: D

11. Installing an operating system PTF which of the following would be impacted?
A. IBM supplied object(s)
B. User created object(s)
C. Newly installed object(s)on the system
D. Changes the authority of object(s) on the system
Answer: A

12. An operator accidentally deleted a spool file before it was printed. What must the operator do to recover the spool file?
A. Rerun the job that created it.
B. Use the IBM-supplied RSTSPLF command.
C. Restore the spool file from the last backup tape.
D. Use iSeries Navigator to restore the file from the recycle bin.
Answer: A

13. Which of the following commands will save a directory stored in the IFS?
A. SAV
B. SAVOBJ
C. SAVDLO
D. SAVLIB
Answer: A

14. In the intermediate assistance level, how can an operator learn more about what a message means or how to respond to it?
A. Go to the Messages menu
B. Put the cursor on the message and press the F1 (Help) key
C. Enter the Work with Message Descriptions (WRKMSGD) command
D. Put the cursor on the response line and press the F1 (Help) key
Answer: B

15. A job named "USERJOB1" has been running for an unusually long period of time and is utilizing a large amount of CPU resources. Which command will immediately end the job and delete all spool files produced by the job?
A. ENDJOB(USERJOB1) OPTION(*IMMED) SPLFILE(*NO)
B. ENDJOB(USERJOB1) OPTION(*IMMED) SPLFILE(*YES)
C. ENDJOB(USERJOB1) OPTION(*IMMED) SPLFILE(*DLT)
D. ENDJOB(USERJOB1) OPTION(*IMMED) SPLFILE(*ALL)
Answer: B

16. What information is displayed when viewing all job queues?
A. Status of the job queues Subsystem assigned to the job queue
B. Number of jobs currently in each job queue Time each job was submitted
C. Status of the subsystems assigned to each job queue Status of each job queue
D. Number of jobs currently in each job queue Time each job is scheduled to run
Answer: A

17. The iSeries server was powered down while electrical maintenance work was performed on the data center UPS. What mode must be displayed on the control panel to power up the system without further operator intervention?
A. Auto
B. Manual
C. Secure
D. Normal
Answer: D

18. An operator performed a backup of all changed objects. Which command would be used to restore SLS092502 to the ACCOUNT02 library from this backup?
A. RSTOBJ OBJ(SLS092502) SAVLIB(ACCOUNT02) DEV(TAP01)
B. RSTOBJ OBJ(SLS092502) SAVCHG(ACCOUNT02) DEV(TAP01)
C. RSTCHGOBJ OBJ(SLS092502) SAVLIB(ACCOUNT02) DEV(TAP01)
D. RSTCHGOBJ OBJ(SLS092502) SAVCHG(ACCOUNT02) DEV(TAP01)
Answer: A

19. Press the exhibit button to view the exhibit. Which of the following can be determined from the job description?
A. What user profile submitted the job
B. The library list associated with the job
C. The output queue where the output will be sent
D. The job queue from which the job will be selected to run
Answer: D

20. Which of the following occurs when a writer is ended in a controlled mode?
A. The writer program stops at the end of the current file.
B. The writer program stops immediately, deleting the rest of the file.
C. The writer program stops immediately, keeping the rest of the file in the queue.
D. The writer program stops at the end of the current page, keeping the rest of the file in the queue.
Answer: A

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Exam : Nortel 920-331
Title : Mommunication Server 1000 Ris.5.0 Database Administrator

1. A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 system equipped with System Errors and Events Lookup package 245, which provides the ability to display system messages on screen. Which setting should the Multi-User Login feature be set to for the System Lookup Message feature to work?
A. ON
B. OFF
C. LOADED
D. ENABLED
Answer: A

2. The telephones in the Accounting Department have a Class of Service that restricts users from making long distance telephone calls. The customer wants to know if there is a feature that will let personnel in the Accounting Department make long distance calls from an approved list of telephone numbers. Which feature will you activate to meet the customer requirements?
A. Dial Intercom
B. System Speed Call
C. Call Forward by Call Type
D. Controlled Class of Service
Answer: B

3. You have received a customer work order requesting that five new digital telephones be added to the sales department. The customer purchased a new Digital Line Card to support these telephones. Which Overlay (LD) is used to find an unused card slot (LUC) for the new Digital Line Card?
A. LD 02
B. LD 20
C. LD 21
D. LD 117
Answer: B

4. Click on the Exhibit button.
A Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 customer is adding a new accounting department with ten digital telephone users. The customer has asked for the telephones to be programmed with consecutive Directory Numbers (DNs) from their DID range (5000-5399).
Which number sequence is available to meet the customers requirements?
A. 5000 – 5014
B. 5090 – 5100
C. 5275 – 5285
D. 5287 – 5297
Answer: C

5. A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 system. Telephone users are required to use Basic Alternate Route Selection (BARS) to make toll calls. What Class of Service access restriction tells the system to look at the telephone network class of service (NCOS) to determine call eligibility?
A. FR1
B. FR2
C. CTD
D. UNR
Answer: C

6. A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000 Rls. 5.0 system at their site. When using the Command Line Interface (CLI) to add telephones, which Overlays (LDs) are linked to eliminate the need for exiting one Overlay (LD) and entering another one?
A. LDs 10, 11, 20 and 32
B. LDs 20, 21, 22 and 32
C. LDs 14, 15, 16 and 32
D. LDs 32, 50, 57 and 95
Answer: A

7. A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0 system at their site. Element Manager is not yet available. When using the Command Line Interface (CLI) to configure the system, you encounter the following system message: OVL0000. What is the meaning of this system message?
A. A telephone is disabled.
B. There is a checksum failure.
C. A user has already logged into the system.
D. The requested program is not in the tape directory.
Answer: C

8. A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 0 system equipped with System Errors and Events Lookup package 245, which provides the ability to display system messages on screen. When a system message is received, which procedure should they use to look it up it and display it on the screen?
A. Enter the system message followed by <cr>.
For example, 4080 <cr>
B. Enter the system error code followed by <cr>.
For example, bug4080 <cr>
C. Enter err followed by the system error code and <cr>.
For example, err bug4080 <cr>
D. Enter err followed by the system error code and <cr>.
For example, LOAD errcde bug4080 <cr>
Answer: B

9. A customer requirement is that telephone users have the capability to place a call in a parked state, similar to hold, where it can be retrieved by another set. Which feature, service, or option must be defined within the Customer Data Block (LD 15) before defining the feature for an individual telephone level?
A. Allow Call Park
B. Allow Individual Hold
C. Enable Conference Count Display
D. Allow Central Office Trunk Priority for Call Pickup
Answer: A

10. Click the Exhibit button.
You have been asked to review and interpret the existing trunk information for your customer.
According to the printout shown in the exhibit, which type of trunk is this?
A. TIE trunk
B. digital trunk
C. virtual trunk
D. Central Office Trunk
Answer: D

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Sun Certified Programmer for the Java 2 Platform.SE 5.0 认证作为全球IT领域专家 SUN 热门认证之一,是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。 如果你正在准备 212-055 考试,为 SUN Sun Certified Programmer for the Java 2 Platform.SE 5.0认证做最后冲刺,又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟, Examsoon希望能助你成功。

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Exam : SUN 212-055
Title : Sun Certified Programmer for the Java 2 Platform.SE 5.0

1.
12. interface DoAll extends DoMore {
13. float getAvg(int a, int b, int c, int d); }
結果為何?
A. 檔案可以編譯,而沒有錯誤。
B. 編譯失敗。只有第7行有一個錯誤。
C. 編譯失敗。只有第12行有一個錯誤。
D. 編譯失敗。只有第13行有一個錯誤。
E. 編譯失敗。只有第7行與第12行有錯誤。
F. 編譯失敗。只有第7行與第13行有錯誤。
G. 編譯失敗。第7、12、與13行有錯誤。
Answer: A

2. }
18. }
第15行插入哪一項程式碼後,可讓Sprite類別編譯?
A. Foo { public int bar() { return 1; } }
B. new Foo { public int bar() { return 1; } }
C. new Foo() { public int bar() { return 1; } }
D. new class Foo { public int bar() { return 1; } }
Answer: C

3. 現有:
1. interface DoStuff2 {
2. float getRange(int low, int high); }
3.
4. interface DoMore {
5. float getAvg(int a, int b, int c); }
6.
7. abstract class DoAbstract implements DoStuff2, DoMore { }
8.
9. class DoStuff implements DoStuff2 {
10. public float getRange(int x, int y) { return 3.14f; } }
11.
12. interface DoAll extends DoMore {
13. float getAvg(int a, int b, int c, int d); }
結果為何?
A. 檔案可以編譯,而沒有錯誤。
B. 編譯失敗。只有第7行有一個錯誤。
C. 編譯失敗。只有第12行有一個錯誤。
D. 編譯失敗。只有第13行有一個錯誤。
E. 編譯失敗。只有第7行與第12行有錯誤。
F. 編譯失敗。只有第7行與第13行有錯誤。
G. 編譯失敗。第7、12、與13行有錯誤。
Answer: A

4. }
第14行加入哪一項程式碼後,可讓Sprite類別編譯?
A. Direction d = NORTH;
B. Nav.Direction d = NORTH;
C. Direction d = Direction.NORTH;
D. Nav.Direction d = Nav.Direction.NORTH;
Answer: D

5. 現有:
11. class ClassA {}
12. class ClassB extends ClassA {}
13. class ClassC extends ClassA {}
以及:
21. ClassA p0 = new ClassA();
22. ClassB p1 = new ClassB();
23. ClassC p2 = new ClassC();
24. ClassA p3 = new ClassB();
25. ClassA p4 = new ClassC();
哪三項是正確的?(選擇三項。)
A. p0 = p1;
B. p1 = p2;
C. p2 = p4;
D. p2 = (ClassC)p1;
E. p1 = (ClassB)p3;
F. p2 = (ClassC)p4;
Answer: AEF

6. interface DoAll extends DoMore {
13. float getAvg(int a, int b, int c, int d); }
結果為何?
A. 檔案可以編譯,而沒有錯誤。
B. 編譯失敗。只有第7行有一個錯誤。
C. 編譯失敗。只有第12行有一個錯誤。
D. 編譯失敗。只有第13行有一個錯誤。
E. 編譯失敗。只有第7行與第12行有錯誤。
F. 編譯失敗。只有第7行與第13行有錯誤。
G. 編譯失敗。第7、12、與13行有錯誤。
Answer: A

7. 現有:
11. public static void parse(String str) {
12. try {
13. float f = Float.parseFloat(str);
14. } catch (NumberFormatException nfe) {
15. f = 0;
16. } finally {
17. System.out.println(f);
18. }
19. }
20. public static void main(String[] args) {
21. parse("invalid");
22. }
結果為何?
A. 0.0
B. 編譯失敗。
C. 在執行時期parse方法會丟出一個ParseException。
D. 在執行時期parse方法會丟出一個NumberFormatException。
Answer: B

8. 現有:
11. public interface Status {
12. /* insert code here */ int MY_VALUE = 10;
13. }
哪三項在第12行有效?(選擇三項。)
A. final
B. static
C. native
D. public
E. private
F. abstract
G. protected
Answer: ABD

9. 現有:
12. public class Wow {
13. public static void go(short n) {System.out.println("short");}
14. public static void go(Short n) {System.out.println("SHORT");}
15. public static void go(Long n) {System.out.println(" LONG");}
16. public static void main(String [] args) {
17. Short y = 6;
18. int z = 7;
19. go(y);
20. go(z);
21. }
22. }
結果為何?
A. short LONG
B. SHORT LONG
C. 編譯失敗。
D. 在執行時期丟出了一個例外。
Answer: C

10. 現有:
public class NamedCounter {
private final String name;
private int count;
public NamedCounter(String name) { this.name = name; }
public String getName() { return name; }
public void increment() { count++; }
public int getCount() { return count; }
public void reset() { count = 0; }
}
應該做哪三項修改,才能調整這個類別,以供多個執行緒安全地使用?(選擇三項。)
A. 用synchronized關鍵字宣告reset()
B. 用synchronized關鍵字宣告getName()
C. 用synchronized關鍵字宣告getCount()
D. 用synchronized關鍵字宣告建構元
E. 用synchronized關鍵字宣告increment()
Answer: ACE

11. 現有:
10. int x = 0;
11. int y = 10;
12. do {
13. y–;
14. ++x;
15. } while (x < 5);
16. System.out.print(x + "," + y);
結果為何?
A. 5,6
B. 5,5
C. 6,5
D. 6,6
Answer: B

12. // insert code here
15. }
第14行加入哪一項程式碼後,可讓Sprite類別編譯?
A. Direction d = NORTH;
B. Nav.Direction d = NORTH;
C. Direction d = Direction.NORTH;
D. Nav.Direction d = Nav.Direction.NORTH;
Answer: D

13. class DoStuff implements DoStuff2 {
10. public float getRange(int x, int y) { return 3.14f; } }
11.
12. interface DoAll extends DoMore {
13. float getAvg(int a, int b, int c, int d); }
結果為何?
A. 檔案可以編譯,而沒有錯誤。
B. 編譯失敗。只有第7行有一個錯誤。
C. 編譯失敗。只有第12行有一個錯誤。
D. 編譯失敗。只有第13行有一個錯誤。
E. 編譯失敗。只有第7行與第12行有錯誤。
F. 編譯失敗。只有第7行與第13行有錯誤。
G. 編譯失敗。第7、12、與13行有錯誤。
Answer: A

14. public float getRange(int x, int y) { return 3.14f; } }
11.
12. interface DoAll extends DoMore {
13. float getAvg(int a, int b, int c, int d); }
結果為何?
A. 檔案可以編譯,而沒有錯誤。
B. 編譯失敗。只有第7行有一個錯誤。
C. 編譯失敗。只有第12行有一個錯誤。
D. 編譯失敗。只有第13行有一個錯誤。
E. 編譯失敗。只有第7行與第12行有錯誤。
F. 編譯失敗。只有第7行與第13行有錯誤。
G. 編譯失敗。第7、12、與13行有錯誤。
Answer: A

15. 現有:
11. String test = "This is a test";
12. String[] tokens = test.split("s");
13. System.out.println(tokens.length);
結果為何?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 4
D. 編譯失敗。
E. 在執行時期丟出了一個例外。
Answer: D

16. }
20. public static void main(String[] args) {
21. parse("invalid");
22. }
結果為何?
A. 0.0
B. 編譯失敗。
C. 在執行時期parse方法會丟出一個ParseException。
D. 在執行時期parse方法會丟出一個NumberFormatException。
Answer: B

17. float getAvg(int a, int b, int c, int d); }
結果為何?
A. 檔案可以編譯,而沒有錯誤。
B. 編譯失敗。只有第7行有一個錯誤。
C. 編譯失敗。只有第12行有一個錯誤。
D. 編譯失敗。只有第13行有一個錯誤。
E. 編譯失敗。只有第7行與第12行有錯誤。
F. 編譯失敗。只有第7行與第13行有錯誤。
G. 編譯失敗。第7、12、與13行有錯誤。
Answer: A

18. );
17. }
18. }
第15行插入哪一項程式碼後,可讓Sprite類別編譯?
A. Foo { public int bar() { return 1; } }
B. new Foo { public int bar() { return 1; } }
C. new Foo() { public int bar() { return 1; } }
D. new class Foo { public int bar() { return 1; } }
Answer: C

19. }
第15行插入哪一項程式碼後,可讓Sprite類別編譯?
A. Foo { public int bar() { return 1; } }
B. new Foo { public int bar() { return 1; } }
C. new Foo() { public int bar() { return 1; } }
D. new class Foo { public int bar() { return 1; } }
Answer: C

20. 現有:
10: public class Hello {
11: String title;
12: int value;
13: public Hello() {
14: title += " World";
15: }
16: public Hello(int value) {
17: this.value = value;
18: title = "Hello";
19: Hello();
20: }
21: }
以及:
30: Hello c = new Hello(5);
31: System.out.println(c.title);
結果為何?
A. Hello
B. Hello World
C. 編譯失敗。
D. Hello World 5
E. 這個程式碼可以執行,但沒有輸出。
F. 在執行時期丟出了一個例外。
Answer: C

最新920-128认证考试题库下载

Filed under: Nortel — admin @ 3:40 am

最新920-128考试题库

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部分最新免费920-128认证题库
:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新920-128考试题库)

 
 
Exam : Nortel 920-128
Title : MPS 500 Rls.3.0 Operations and Maintenance

1. Which component, common on both the Media Processing Server (MPS) Application and Speech Server, uses and manages call conferencing, phone line application, and Speech Server resources?
A. Pool Manager (PMGR)
B. Call Control Manager (CCM)
C. Resource Control Manager (RCM)
D. Vengine Application Management Process (VAMP)
Answer: A

2. What must be done if the Windows server was not previously configured for disk mirroring?
A. The server must be removed.
B. The server must be restarted.
C. The server must be powered off.
D. The server must be reconfigured.
Answer: D

3. Speech Server node uses a Digital Communications Controller (DCC) 3000 board. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A maximum of 30 Speech Server nodes can connect to a DCC 3000 board.
B. A maximum of 32 Speech Server nodes can connect to a DCC 3000 board.
C. All DCC 3000 boards in a Media Processing Server (MPS) node cluster can use one Speech Server node.
D. One DCC 3000 board in a Media Processing Server (MPS) node cluster can use one Speech Server node.
Answer: BC

4. The VPSHOSTS file on the Speech Server node contains important mandatory entries for proper operation. For which are component entries mandatory?
A. tertiary Speech Servers
B. additional Speech Servers
C. the Digital Trunk Controller
D. the connected Application Processors
Answer: D

5. A technician needs to validate an inbound call is arriving at the DTC. In addition to the dlt logstart command, which one of these commands would you need to add to accomplish this?
A. dlt -linedebug
B. dlt -spanstatus
C. dlt debugFEtrace
D. dlt setrsettrace
Answer: D

6. Which process resides on the Speech Server node, and is responsible for communicating with one or more Digital Communications Controller (DCC) 3000 boards on the Media Processing Server (MPS) node?
A. DCC
B. RCM
C. RCMP
D. PMGR
Answer: B

7. Where is the NUANCE environment found?
A. C:Nuance
B. C:varNuance
C. C:Program FilesNuance
D. C:Program FilesNorteletcNuance
Answer: A

8. A technician needs to force a synchronization in a redundant configuration. Which command is used to do this?
A. rcd sync
B. rcd forcesync
C. rcd enablesync
D. rcd syncinterval
Answer: A

9. When configuring for N+1 redundancy, where must the Speech Server resources be located?
A. the primary vpshosts file
B. the secondary vpshosts file
C. the existing Speech Server group
D. the primary node’s Pool Manager (PMGR)
Answer: A

10. Speech Servers support N+1 Redundancy by networking hosts together. During a failover scenario, which component in the secondary Speech Server takes over and manages Speech Server resources?
A. LVR
B. RCM
C. CCM
D. PMGR
Answer: D

11. When using the console connection of the Digital Communications Controller (DCC) 3000 to check and change certain parameters, which three are valid? (Choose three.)
A. inclusion of a Subnet Mask
B. shutdown of DCC 3000 card
C. interface used to load FPGAs
D. modifying the Ethernet address
E. sub-interface address configuration
Answer: ACD

12. What is the maximum number of Speech Server nodes that can connect to one DCC 3000?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: D

13. Click on the Exhibit button.
Which command was used to generate the output?
A. cmm config
B. vmm config
C. cmm repconfig
D. vmm repconfig
Answer: D

14. Which file is used by the Bootp Daemon to reply to bootp requests made by the Digital Communications Controller (DCC) 3000?
A. C:Program FilesNorteletcbootptab
B. C:WINDOWSsystem32driversvarbootptab
C. C:WINDOWSsystem32driversetcbootptab
D. C:WINDOWSsystem32driversoptnortelbootptab
Answer: C

15. A technician is in ServeRAID Manager and notices that a disk array is displaying a yellow caution icon. Which statement describes the cause of this caution icon?
A. Disk synchronization has not started.
B. Disk synchronization is not complete.
C. Disk synchronization is complete but not in a silvered state.
D. Disks cannot synchronize because a disk has bad sectors.
Answer: B

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4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前,请检测联接,可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性。

920-128 考试是 Nortel 公司的 MPS 500 Ris. 3.0 Operations and Maintenance 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的 920-128 权威考试题库软件是 Nortel 认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 920-128考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

MPS 500 Ris. 3.0 Operations and Maintenance 认证作为全球IT领域专家 Nortel 热门认证之一,是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。 如果你正在准备 920-128 考试,为 Nortel MPS 500 Ris. 3.0 Operations and Maintenance认证做最后冲刺,又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟, Examsoon希望能助你成功。

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2、售后服务第一!我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功,必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务,只有客户满意了,我们才能发展。客户至上是我们Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨;

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优点:具有学习模式,测试模式,线上自动升级
缺点:仅限固定电脑使用,不可打印为文本,只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式920-128考试题库
优点:不需下载安装软件,方便用户打印和携带,但也带来了可随意制的弊端,因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的920-128题库,一经发现立即取消其升级资格,且不予退款。
缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

最新MB6-206认证考试题库下载

Filed under: Microsoft — admin @ 3:11 am

最新MB6-206考试题库

Examsoon最新MB6-206认证真题,真题覆盖率达到90%以上。考不过全额退款保障,让您认证无忧。绝对真实来自Examsoon的高质量题库。

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Exam : MBS MB6-206
Title : Axapta 3.0 Installation&Configuration

1. The CFO of a company has asked Margie, the Senior Consultant, if encryption within Microsoft Axapta is secure enough for their company. What is the highest level of encryption within Microsoft Axapta?
A. RC4 encryption (128-bit key)
B. There is no encryption within Microsoft Axapta.
C. Encryption with a user-supplied key
D. 32 bit encryption
Answer: A

2. When does Microsoft Axapta create the system tables?
A. They are only created on the first connection at application startup.
B. They are re-created on every new connection at application startup.
C. They are created at synchronization time or at application startup, if not found in the database.
D. The Microsoft Axapta system tables are automatically created when creating the database.
Answer: C

3. When using Microsoft SQL Server, which Server Role should you assign to the SQL Server login created for the Microsoft Axapta database for maximum security in a production environment?
A. System Administrator
B. Security Administrator
C. No server roles, only database roles
D. Process Administrator.
Answer: C

4. During the installation of Microsoft Axapta Server V.3.0, what are the minimum software requirements?
A. Internet Information Server v 4.0 or higher
B. Microsoft Office XP or higher
C. Internet Explorer v 5.0 or higher
D. Windows NT 4.0 Server
Answer: C

5. When using Microsoft Axapta, what is the recommended network library to use with Microsoft SQL server?
A. TCP/IP
B. NWlink IPX/SPX
C. Named Pipes
D. Multi-protocol
Answer: A

6. Simon, the System Implementer has added another instance to the company Microsoft Axapta Object Server and defined a specific TCP/IP address and port number for the new instance. However, this new instance will not start. What should Simon look for as a cause for this new instance failing to start?
A. The new AOS instance is using the same TCP/IP port number as an existing AOS instance.
B. It is not possible to run more than one AOS instance connected to the same application files.
C. As the AOS instances are set to use the same directory, they are trying to access the same Axapta object cache file.
D. A user has previously logged on to the application using a 2-Tier connection.
Answer: A

7. Simon, the System Implementer, is preparing to create a new Microsoft SQL Server database to use with Microsoft Axapta. Which option represents how Simon should configure the primary data file and transaction logs?
A. Place them on the same disk and as small as possible to conserve disk space.
B. Place them on different disk sets with data sized to hold at least one year worth of data.
C. Place them on the same disk using the default size provided by Microsoft SQL Server.
D. Place them on the same disk with the same sizes.
Answer: B

8. Where can you specify a location for the error log file used by Microsoft Axapta?
A. The Tools/options menu
B. The Axapta configuration utility
C. The SQL Administration form
D. The database log form.
Answer: B

9. Margie, the Senior Consultant, has been contacted by a customer and asked to specify which Microsoft Axapta installation milestones must be completed before a Microsoft Axapta 3-tier thin client can access the data in the Microsoft Axapta database. Please choose the appropriate answer.
A. The Microsoft Axapta client, server, and application must be installed; all clients and servers must be connected to the network.
B. The Microsoft Axapta client, server, and application must be installed; all clients and servers must be connected to the network. A Microsoft Axapta DB must be created.
C. The Microsoft Axapta client, server, and application must be installed; all clients and servers must be connected to the network. A Microsoft Axapta DB must be created and pre-synchronized using a 2-tier client.
D. The Microsoft Axapta client, server, and application must be installed; all clients and servers must be connected to the network. A Microsoft Axapta DB must be created and pre-synchronized using a 3-tier rich client.
Answer: C

10. Margie, the Senior Consultant, has been contacted by a customer who needs help integrating their current Microsoft Axapta installation into Active Directory. All Microsoft Axapta clients are running in 2-tier mode. What tasks must be done before Active Directory integration can take place at this customer site?
A. From the Microsoft Axapta installation CDROM, run the AxAdSetup.exe setup program.
B. Run the Adprepare.exe program from the Microsoft Axapta installation CDROM.
C. Install and configure a Microsoft Axapta Object Server.
D. In the root of the AD tree, right click, and add the Microsoft Axapta Database and Microsoft Axapta application.
Answer: AC

11. After installation of the Microsoft Axapta Active Directory schema extensions, Simon, the System Implementer, needs to make the necessary changes to the current Microsoft Axapta installation to migrate from a standard 3-tier thin client environment to an Active directory integrated environment. Where does Simon need to make the necessary configuration changes?
A. To both the setting of all relevant AOS instances and to the Microsoft Axapta 3.0 client configuration.
B. Only to the setting of all relevant AOS instances.
C. Only to the Microsoft Axapta 3.0 client configuration.
D. No changes are necessary. The only requirement is the installation of the Active Directory schema extensions.
Answer: A

12. Which of the following letter combinations should always be a part of the Microsoft SQL Server collation set for the Microsoft Axapta database?
A. Accent Insensitive (AI)
B. Case Insensitive (CI)
C. Case Sensitive (CS)
D. Kana Sensitive (KS).
Answer: B

13. Which of the following statements are true statements about the use of the Microsoft Axapta database wizard?
A. The Microsoft Axapta database wizard is installed on each client and can be called directly.
B. The Microsoft Axapta database wizard creates a user that you have specified for the database.
C. The Microsoft Axapta database wizard creates the user bmssa along with the user that you have specified for the database.
D. The Microsoft Axapta database wizard automatically assigns system administrator rights to the user that you have specified.
Answer: B

14. Your company has required two new servers. These servers are to be used to run Microsoft Axapta Object Servers. You are asked, as your company Microsoft Axapta Object Server professional, to make a Servers.decision on which RAID subsystem they should implement in the two servers. Taking into consideration performance and cost, please choose the best of the below options.
A. Raid 5
B. Raid 0+1
C. Raid 1
D. Raid 0
Answer: C

15. Margie, the Senior Consultant, has been asked to conduct a site review on a customer Microsoft Axapta Margie, the Senior Consultant, has been asked to conduct a site review on a customer Microsoft Axapta installation. Margie finds several issues in regard to a lack of redundancy in the current infrastructure. Given the following description of the customer network, in what units should the customer invest in order to have the highest availability and still keep the cost at a minimum Infrastructure description: All servers are dedicated to perform one task, all servers are equipped with 100 Mbps Network Interface Cards (NIC), and all servers are connected to a 100 Mbps switch. All servers are located on the same subnet. All Microsoft Axapta clients run in 3-tier thin mode.
A. One extra NIC in all AOS servers
B. One extra NIC in all servers, except AOS servers
C. An additional switch
D. Two additional switches
Answer: BC

16. Multiple AOS instances on a Microsoft Axapta Server have been configured to enable encryption to ensure privacy of all data sent between the Client and the relevant AOS instances. In this scenario, which of the following statements is correct?
A. It ensures that all communication between clients and all AOS instances is encrypted.
B. It ensures that only communication from server to client is encrypted.
C. It ensures that only communication from client to server is encrypted.
D. It ensures that all communication between clients and a specific AOS instance is encrypted.
Answer: D

17. Which of the following Network Protocols does Microsoft Axapta use for transmitting AOCP data packets between Microsoft Axapta Clients and Microsoft Axapta Object Servers in a 3-tier environment?
A. IPX/SPX
B. ICMP
C. TCP/IP
D. VoIP
Answer: C

18. In a 3-tier environment with separate database, file, and two AOS servers, the two AOS servers are running one instance each, and together they form an AOS cluster. There is a combination of Rich and Thin clients. The "CacheLookup" properties are set to "EntireTable" on the ZipCode table. All clients access the ZipCode table when they start up. Where will the table cache be located for the 3-tier rich clients and for the 3-tier thin clients?
A. 3-tier rich clients will hold a private cache of records used by the client. AOS will maintain a complete cache of all records available in the zip code table.
B. 3-tier thin clients will hold a private cache of records used by the client. AOS will maintain a complete cache of all records available in the zip code table.
C. 3-tier thin clients maintain a complete cache of all records available in the zip code table. The AOS instance does not hold any cache for 3-tier thin clients.
D. 3-tier rich clients maintain a complete cache of all records available in the zip code table. The AOS instance does not hold any cache for 3-tier rich clients.
Answer: BD

19. Margie, the Senior Consultant, is helping Simon, the System Implementer, setup a new Microsoft Axapta install for a company. This company plans to run Microsoft Axapta in a 3-tier environment for this company. They have installed and configured all the necessary servers to run Microsoft Axapta (Object Server, Database Server, and File Server). They have also completed the setup and configured the 2-tier environment, and they are now configuring the first AOS instance, but the AOS instance will not start. What is the MOST likely reason for this?
A. A user has previously logged on to the application using a 2-Tier connection.
B. The Windows Server environmental variable "path" does not include the folder structure of the Axapta Server.
C. The AOS Service is running using the "Local system account."
D. The Object Server was installed as a user other than administrator.
Answer: C

20. A new user is reading about the installation of Microsoft Axapta in a 2-tier environment. The user wants to be sure they understand which parts of Microsoft Axapta are required for the 2-tier installation. They contact Simon, the System Implementer, to help clarify what is required. What does Simon tell them are the Microsoft Axapta components required for the 2-tier installation?
A. Application
B. System DSN
C. Axapta Object Server
D. Client
Answer: AD

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最新BI0-120认证考试题库下载

Filed under: COGNOS — admin @ 2:13 am

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Exam : COGNOS BI0-120
Title : Cognos 8 BI Administrator

1. An administrator configured a Cognos Series 7 authentication provider for use in Cognos 8. What do the Series 7 user classes appear as in Cognos Connection?
A. Roles
B. Users
C. Groups
D. Folders
Answer: A

2. What is the minimum requirement for configuring Cognos Office Connection using Smart Client technology with Microsoft Office components?
A. Excel with MS Office 2003 Professional
B. Excel with MS Office 2003 Standard
C. PowerPoint with MS Office 2003 Standard
D. PowerPoint with MS Office 2003 Professional
Answer: A

3. When the administrator is monitoring the status of services in the server administration tool, what does the list contain?
A. services that are running or stopped only
B. all services listed in Cognos Configuration
C. services that are running or on standby only
D. all services that are set to true in Cognos Configuration
Answer: D

4. At what level should the logging be set to capture the following set of details?
user account management and runtime usage of Cognos 8,
use requests, and
service requests and responses.
A. trace
B. basic
C. request
D. minimal
Answer: C

5. An administrator wants to show the Cognos Connection folder hierarchy in a portlet. Which portlet must the administrator use?
A. Cognos Viewer
B. Cognos Search
C. Cognos Navigator
D. Cognos Extended Applications
Answer: C

6. Which type of logging indication can show user calls that are made from Cognos 8 components?
A. audit logging
B. trace logging
C. event logging
D. performance logging
Answer: A

7. Why would an administrator want to copy a user profile?
A. The user was deleted using a third-party authentication provider.
B. The administrator wants to copy trusted credentials for multiple users.
C. The user has changed names and the administrator is setting up an account in the new name.
D. The user requires enhanced security permissions before logging on to Cognos 8 for the first time.
Answer: C

8. What can an administrator use to transfer security data from one location to another using Series 7 namespaces?
A. Settings (.csa) file
B. Local authentication cache (.lac) file
C. Local authentication export (.lae) file
D. Configuration specification (.ccs) file
Answer: C

9. How can an administrator ensure that users who are logged on to Cognos 8 are not prompted to log on again when they access PowerCube data?
A. Have Cognos 8 and PowerPlay point to the same local authentication export (.lae) file.
B. Have Cognos 8 and PowerPlay point to the same local authentication cache (.lac) file.
C. Have Cognos 8 and PowerPlay use, as their authentication source, the same NTLM namespace.
D. Have Cognos 8 and PowerPlay use, as their authentication source, the same Series 7 namespace.
Answer: D

10. In Metric Studio, what must an administrator define before initializing the metric store?
A. Business calendar
B. Metric Designer extract
C. Metric management tasks
D. Framework Manager package
Answer: A

11. What is created after the administrator initializes the metric store?
A. a metric extract
B. an object extract
C. a metric package
D. a relational database
Answer: C

12. What is stored in the Cognos 8 content store?
A. Log files
B. Metric packages
C. Report specifications
D. Metric Designer extracts
Answer: C

13. Under what circumstances would full logging level be most appropriately used?
A. Whenever users cannot access the data.
B. Whenever detailed troubleshooting is required.
C. Whenever more than one dispatcher has been configured.
D. Whenever the default configuration for logging has been changed.
Answer: B

14. Which model type enables users to drill down in Analysis Studio?
A. Architect model
B. Relational model
C. Dimensional model
D. Data Manager model
Answer: C

15. What status can no longer process report requests but can accept and process control requests?
A. paused
B. standby
C. stopped
D. unknown
Answer: C

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优点:不需下载安装软件,方便用户打印和携带,但也带来了可随意制的弊端,因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的BI0-120题库,一经发现立即取消其升级资格,且不予退款。
缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

2009年06月29日

最新000-907认证考试题库下载

Filed under: IBM — admin @ 11:20 pm

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Exam : IBM 000-907
Title : IBM Maximo V6 EAM Implementation

1. Which three steps must be completed before running a probe for Storage Subsystems? (Choose three.)
A. run a Data scan
B. run Fabric discovery
C. run an Agent discovery
D. run a CIM/OM discovery
E. add CIM/OM login information
F. run second CIM/OM discovery
Answer: DEF

2. A CIM/OM discovery job fails each night because new CIM/OM agents are being added. How can you eliminate the failure and stop the agents from being added?
A. add the CIM agents to the SLP using the exclude parameter
B. disable the scan of the local subnet in the CIM/OM Discovery job
C. use the Topology Viewer to remove the CIM agents from the database
D. configure each failing CIM agent so that it successfully connects, then select Remove CIM/OM to delete it permanently
Answer: B

3. What is the main purpose of the SLP directory agents?
A. to work around the multicast limitations
B. to allow TPC to discover CIM/OMs in a different subnet
C. to avoid the need for multiple hosts/servers for CIM/OM Agents
D. to reduce the network traffic load during the performance data collection
Answer: B

4. Which service should be checked to verify that the TotalStorage Productivity Center V3.3 Data Server started on the Windows platform?
A. IBM Tivoli Common Agent Data Server
B. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center Data Server
C. IBM WebSphere Application Server V6 TPC Server
D. IBM WebSphere Application Server V6 Data Server
Answer: B

5. What is needed to integrate TotalStorage Productivity Center V3.3 with the customer’s SNMP manager?
A. the IP address or the hostname of the SNMP manager
B. nothing, TPC will automatically recognize the SNMP event manager
C. Data Manager ? Alerting, then right click the Filesystem Alert node and select Create Alert
D. edit the <TPC_install_dir>devicesnmptpcevnt.opt options file with the event manager server name
Answer: A

6. When estimating the size of the Agent Manager registry database, which factor should be taken into consideration?
A. OS type
B. numbers of agents
C. number of GUI clients
D. local or remote database
Answer: B

7. Which steps should be performed, once a CIM/OM is configured and discovered?
A. run the probe
B. ping the CIM/OM agent to trigger re-registration and rediscovery
C. restart the CIM/OM agent to trigger registration or discovery again
D. verify or specify Port, Username, Password and Password Confirm, Interoperability Namespace, Protocol, and perform Test Connection. Run
the discovery.
Answer: A

8. In addition to the IBM 3494, what other tape library devices are supported by TotalStorage Productivity Center V3.3?
A. IBM 3582
B. IBM 3492
C. IBM 3583
D. IBM TS3310
Answer: D

9. Given the customer requirements to monitor ESS storage subsystems, which product can be replaced by TCP V3.3?
A. Expert
B. DSCLI
C. NetView
D. IT Director
Answer: A

10. Which command can be used to verify that the correct version of DB2 is installed on an AIX server for TotalStorage Productivity Center V3.3?
A. db2ver
B. db2level
C. db2 ersiondb2 ?ersion
D. db2 connect to sysdb; db2 "select * from rellevel"; db2 connect reset
Answer: B

11. What must be installed on a Windows 2003 Server before installing Agent Manager 1.3.2 to support TPC V3.3?
A. SLP
B. CIM/OM
C. Java 1.4.2
D. Tivoli Common Agent
Answer: C

12. What conditions must be met to perform Storage Subsystem Performance monitoring?
A. The device has been pinged, and a monitor started.
B. The CIM/OM is discovered and the device has been probed.
C. The CIM/OM is discovered, the device has been probed, and a monitor started.
D. A fabric agent is installed in the desired zone and the device CIM/OM is discovered.
Answer: C

13. A company has two TPC Servers named A and B, and needs to create a rolled up report showing all computers monitored by both TPC Servers. On TPC Server A, a definition for TPC Server B is created under the Administrative Services -> Data sources -> TPC Servers. What else must be done before the rolled up report can be generated?
A. The rollup service must be started.
B. A CIM/OM discovery must be run against TPC Server B.
C. A TPC Server probe must be defined and run against TPC Server B.
D. A TPC Server discovery job must be defined and run against TPC Server B.
Answer: C

14. Which statement about CIM/OM agents is correct?
A. Two or more storage device vendors can share a single CIM/OM agent.
B. Multiple CIM/OM agents can share the same TCPIP port on the same server.
C. Data Manager and Disk Manager must have separate CIM/OM agents for a device.
D. A CIM/OM agent is required for every vendor storage device that you want to collect configuration data.
Answer: D

15. What access does a user have if they are not assigned membership to any role?
A. The user will have no access.
B. The user will have "Disk Operator" access by default.
C. The user will have "Data Operator" access by default.
D. The user will have "TPC Administrator" access by default.
Answer: A

16. What is required to generate a report on a SQL Database?
A. TPC database report generator is installed.
B. Microsoft SQL Server management agent is installed.
C. TotalStorage Productivity Center V3.3 Data Agent is installed on the server hosting the database.
D. TotalStorage Productivity Center V3.3 Database Agent is installed on the server hosting the database.
Answer: C

17. What is the default common agent registration password?
A. manager
B. changeMe
C. passw0rd
D. password
Answer: B

18. The customer key requirements include data monitoring and chargeback. The customer has over 100 Windows servers with over 10TB of local and SCSI attached storage. Which components of TotalStorage Productivity Center V3 (TPC) should be recommended?
A. TPC for Data
B. TPC for Data and TPC for Disk
C. TPC for Data and TPC for Fabric
D. TPC for Data, TPC for Fabric, and TPC for Disk
Answer: A

19. The customer is currently using TPC to forward SNMP traps to NetView. What must be done in TPC to ensure SNMP traps are also sent to an Omnibus server?
A. discover the Omnibus server using Out of Band Discovery
B. add the IP address of the Omnibus server as SNMP Destination 2 in the Alert Disposition panel
C. disable the existing SNMP Manager in the Alert Disposition panel and add the Omnibus server to the configuration
D. forward SNMP Traps from Omnibus to the other SNMP trap server because TPC can send SNMP traps to only one destination
Answer: B

20. What job would be run to identify files that require backup through Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. Ping
B. Scan
C. Probe
D. Discovery
Answer: B

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最新70-548VB认证考试题库下载

Filed under: Microsoft — admin @ 10:22 pm

最新70-548VB考试题库

Examsoon最新70-548VB认证真题,真题覆盖率达到90%以上。考不过全额退款保障,让您认证无忧。绝对真实来自Examsoon的高质量题库。

购买70-548VB考试题库请认准Examsoon标志!切勿因贪便宜而造成不必要的损失和遗憾。下载题库及任何70-548VB问题请与我站管理员联系!

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70-548VB题库购买时请一定要认准Examsoon标志,世界第一IT认证资料服务提供商中国服务中心。

Examsoon
部分最新免费70-548VB认证题库
:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新70-548VB考试题库)

 
 
Exam : Microsoft 70-548(VB)
Title : PRO:Design & Develop Wdws-Based Appl by Using MS.NET Frmwk

1. You create Microsoft Windows-based applications. You are testing a component named BankAccount. You write the following code segment for the BankAccount component. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
The test project executes a valid withdraw operation and a valid deposit operation. It also verifies the account balance.
Your companys check-in policy requires that the primary code path is tested before check in. Full testing will be completed later.
You need to establish the lowest acceptable code coverage metric.
What should you test?
A. Test all methods.
B. Do not test exceptions. Test all other methods.
C. Test all code, including variable declarations.
D. Do not test accessor methods. Test all other methods and exceptions.
Answer: B

2. You create Microsoft Windows-based applications. You are designing the integration test for an application. You write the following lines of code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You need to create a report that lists the parts of the code to be considered during integration testing.
Which lines of code should you add to your report?
A. 06, 07, 08, 09, and 10
B. 06, 09, and 10
C. 06 and 10
D. 10
Answer: B

3. You create Microsoft Windows-based applications.
You receive the following code segment to review. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
The strConnectionString variable is pre-populated from the application configuration file. Query statements will remain unchanged throughout the life cycle of the application. Connection pooling is not being used.
This code segment accesses a Microsoft SQL Server 2000 database. The ds dataset is bound to a data grid view so that users can view and update data in the database. The code currently compiles correctly and works as intended.
You need to enhance performance and reliability for this code.
Which two actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Use an ODBC DSN instead of a connection string.
B. Use OleDbDataAdapter objects instead of SqlDataAdapter objects to populate the dataset.
C. Add a line of code before line 12 to open the database connection.
D. Add a Try…Catch block and close the connection in the catch block.
E. Add a Try…Catch…Finally block and close the connection in the Finally block.
Answer: C AND E

4. You create Microsoft Windows-based applications. You create an application that accesses data on a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database. You write the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
The cn variable points to a SqlConnection object. The SqlConnection object will be opened almost every time this code segment executes.
You need to complete this code segment to ensure that the application continues to run even if the SqlConnection object is open. You also need to ensure that the performance remains unaffected.
What should you do?
A. Add a Try block on line 02 along with a matching Catch block beginning on line 07 to handle the possible exception.
B. Add a Try block on line 02 along with a matching Finally block beginning on line 07 to handle the possible exception.
C. Replace line 03 with the following code.
If Not (cn.State = ConnectionState.Open) Then
cn.Open()
End If
D. Replace line 03 with the following code.
If Not (cn.State = ConnectionState.Closed) Then
cn.Open()
End If
Answer: C

5. You create Microsoft Windows-based applications. You are creating an application that will connect to a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database. You write the following code segment for a method contained in the application. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
In the production environment, the database will be stored by a server on the network.
You need to eliminate the requirement to recompile the application when you deploy it to the production environment. You want to achieve this by using minimum amount of programming effort.
What should you do?
A. Create an application configuration file to store the connection string. Change the code to read the connection string from the configuration file.
B. Create an XML file in the application folder to store the connection string. Change the code to use an XMLReader object to connect to a file stream and read the connection string.
C. Create a component that returns the connection string. Change the code to use the component to get the connection string.
D. Create a text file to store the connection string. Change the code to use a TextReader object to connect to a file stream and read the connection string.
Answer: A

6. You create Microsoft Windows-based applications. You are reviewing code for an application that is created for a bank.You find that a Microsoft Windows Form includes the following code segment.
You analyze the code segment and find that the form handles no other events.
You need to suggest changes to improve reliability.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Add an event handler for the TextChanged event for the txtAmount textbox to validate the data typed by the user.
B. Add an event handler for the Validating event for the txtAmount textbox to validate the data typed by the user.
C. Add a Try…Catch block to the cmdDeposit_Click method.
D. Add a Try…Catch block to the ATMDeposit_Load method.
E. Add a Try…Catch block to the ATMDeposit constructor.
Answer: B AND C

7. You create Microsoft Windows-based applications. You need to evaluate the design concept of an application.
The application must meet the following requirements:
You need to evaluate the design and recommend appropriately.
What should you recommend?
A. The design meets all the requirements.
B. Change the Windows-based application to use Windows Authentication.
C. Change the Web service to impersonate the caller.
D. Change the database schema to use stored procedures.
Answer: C

8. 1 balance = balance + 3 * monthlyPayment
2.2 balance = (1 + quarterlyRate) * balance
B. 01 Declare integer variable, x
02 For x=1 to months/3
2.1 balance = balance + 2 * monthlyPayment
2.2 balance = (1 + quarterlyRate) * balance
2.3 balance = balance + monthlyPayment
C. 01 Declare integer variable, x
02 For x=1 to months
2.1 balance = balance + monthlyPayment
2.2 if x Mod 3 is 0 then balance = (1 + quarterlyRate) * balance
D. 01 Declare integer variable, x
02 For x=1 to months
2.1 if x Mod 3 is 0 then balance = (1 + quarterlyRate) * balance
2.2 balance = balance + monthlyPayment
Answer: D

9. You create Microsoft Windows-based applications. You are creating a method. Your applications will call the method multiple times. You write the following lines of code for the method.
The method generates performance issues.
You need to minimize the performance issues that the multiple string concatenations generate.
What should you do?
A. Use a single complex string concatenation.
B. Use an array of strings.
C. Use an ArrayList object.
D. Use a StringBuilder object.
Answer: D

10. You create Microsoft Windows-based applications. You review code for an application that is developed for a bank. You need to test a method named Deposit in one of the application components. The following code segment represents the Deposit method. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You use the Microsoft Visual Studio 2005 test feature to automatically generate the following unit test. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You need to change the test method to return a conclusive result.
Which line of code should you use to replace the code on line 06?
A. Assert.AreEqual(100,target.Balance)
B. Assert.IsTrue(target.Balance <> 100)
C. Debug.Assert(target.Balance = 100,passed)
D. Debug.Assert(target.Balance = 100,failed)
Answer: A

11. You create Microsoft Windows-based applications. You are designing an inventory management solution for a warehouse. The solution must address the following requirements:
You need to develop the data handling capabilities of the solution to meet the requirements.
Which three data handling mechanisms should you select? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Use an XmlReader object to retrieve inventory data from the database and populate a DataSet object.
B. Use a DataAdapter object to retrieve inventory data from the database and populate a DataSet object.
C. Use methods from the DataSet class to generate a new XML file that contains data to be used to generate a purchase order.
D. Use methods from the DataSet class to generate a new XmlDataDocument object that contains data to be used to generate a purchase order.
E. Use an XslCompiledTransform object to generate the purchase order XML file.
F. Use an XmlWriter object to generate the purchase order XML file.
Answer: B AND D AND E

12. You create Microsoft Windows-based applications. You create a banking application that will be used by the account managers of the bank.
You identify a method to simulate the deposit functionality of a savings account. The method will calculate the final balance when monthly deposit, number of months, and quarterly rate are given. The application requirements state that the following criteria must be used to calculate the balance amount:
You translate the outlined specification into pseudo code. You write the following lines of code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You need to insert the appropriate code in line 02.
Which code segment should you insert?
A. 01 Declare integer variable, x
02 For x=1 to months/3
2.1 balance = balance + 3 * monthlyPayment
2.2 balance = (1 + quarterlyRate) * balance
B. 01 Declare integer variable, x
02 For x=1 to months/3
2.1 balance = balance + 2 * monthlyPayment
2.2 balance = (1 + quarterlyRate) * balance
2.3 balance = balance + monthlyPayment
C. 01 Declare integer variable, x
02 For x=1 to months
2.1 balance = balance + monthlyPayment
2.2 if x Mod 3 is 0 then balance = (1 + quarterlyRate) * balance
D. 01 Declare integer variable, x
02 For x=1 to months
2.1 if x Mod 3 is 0 then balance = (1 + quarterlyRate) * balance
2.2 balance = balance + monthlyPayment
Answer: D

13. You create Microsoft Windows-based applications.
You create an application that requires the user to be authenticated by a domain controller.
The application consumes Web services.
During acceptance testing, you detect that for some users a security exception is thrown while calling a method. The users should have access to the method. The method contains the following lines of code.
You need to resolve this bug.
What should you do?
A. Ask an administrator to enable Windows Integrated authentication in IIS.
B. Modify the code access security machine policies for the computer running the code such that the code is permitted to execute.
C. Change the SecurityAction from Demand to Deny.
D. Ask an administrator to add the users to the YourDomainManager group.
Answer: D

14. You create Microsoft Windows-based applications. You are designing a unit test for a form in an application. You write the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You need to identify the methods that must be included for unit testing.
Which methods should you choose?
A. frmCalculation, cmdFib_Click, cmdFac_Click, Fibonacci, and Factorial
B. frmCalculation, cmd_Fib_Click, and cmdFac_Click
C. cmdFib_Click, cmdFac_Click, Fibonacci, and Factorial
D. Fibonacci and Factorial
Answer: D

15. You create Microsoft Windows-based applications. You are designing a unit test class to test the functionality of a component named Calculator. The Calculator must function as a standard nonscientific calculator.
A developer on your team writes the following lines of code for the test class. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You need to ensure that appropriate assertions are tested.
Which additional assertion should you test?
A. AreSame
B. IsInstanceOfType
C. IsNotNull
D. Inconclusive
Answer: C

Examsoon
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Examsoon
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70-548VB 考试是 Microsoft 公司的 PRO: Designing and Developing Windows-Based Applications by Using the Microsoft .NET Framework 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的 70-548VB 权威考试题库软件是 Microsoft 认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 70-548VB考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

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