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2009年04月30日

免费MB6-819学习资料

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Exam : Microsoft MB6-819
Title : AX 2009 Development Introduction

1. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. Now one of your colleagues asks for your help. He
has no idea about how memory is controlled by Microsoft Dynamics AX. So what’s your answer?
A. The memory model is defined on the user options
B. The memory model is defined on the AOS configuration
C. Memory is controlled by explicit programmer defined pointers
D. Memory is controlled only by the kernel and developers and users cannot configure the memory model
Answer: C

2. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. And now you work as the systems developer. You
have been assigned a task to create a new table for a company to hold customer’s favorite items. What should the table name be?
A. FABCustFavorite
B. FavouriteItemCust
C. ItemCustFavourite
D. CustInventFavorite
Answer: C

3. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. In the following options, which object types is the
datasource for a report?
A. View
B. Class
C. Table
D. Query
Answer: C

4. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. And now you work as the systems developer. Now
you’ve been assigned a task to create a method that will be used to print the name of an item used on a sales order line in a report. So when declaring the method,
which syntax is correct?
A. itemName display()
B. display itemName()
C. display itemId itemName()
D. display itemName itemName()
Answer: C

5. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. Given x = 2, what will the following method return?
public int exampleMethod(int x)
{
switch (x)
{
case (1): x = x + x; break;
case (2): x = x + x;
case (3): x = x + x;
case (4): x = x + x; break;
case (5): x = x + x; break;
default: x = x * 4;
}
return x;
}
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: C

6. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. And now you work as the systems developer. You
have been assigned a task to document your code by adding XML comments. So what is the correct syntax for you to use for you?
A. /* <Comment> */
/* comment */
/* </comment> */
B. // <summary>
// Comment
// </summary>
C. // <comment>
// comment
// </comment>
D. /// <summary>
/// Comment
/// </summary>
Answer: C

7. Mike works in an International company which is called DONEX. And he’s in charge of the network of your company. And now he works as the systems developer. Now
he has been assigned a task to use the table CustTable in your code. How does he instantiate the table?
A. CustTable = new CustTable;
B. CustTable = CustTable.new()
C. CustTable = CustTable::new()
D. Tables are public and therefore do not need to be instantiated
Answer: C

8. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. How can you make sure the end user cannot delete
a record in one table if there are related records in another table?
A. By creating a new method on both tables.
B. By creating a Cascade delete action on the related table.
C. By creating a Restricted delete action on the parent table.
D. By creating the relation in the Delete method on the parent table.
Answer: B

9. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. And now you work as the systems developer. You
have been assigned a task to investigate a problem with a field on a form. The field is an Enum, with five possible selections. Some of the records in the form show the
value as blank, whereas some show the correct text. All values of the Enum are seen on at least one record. What might cause this?
A. No label has been specified on one or more of the elements
B. The data source on the form control has not been specified
C. The values in the enum have been modified and records exist with old values
D. The Enum on the field is set correctly, but the extended data type on the field has not been set.
Answer: B

10. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. Now one of your colleagues asks for your help. He
has no idea about what the best practice for naming variables is. So what’s your answer? (choose more than one)
A. One letter variable names can only be used for looping and co-ordinates
B. Variables should start with a lower case letter, for example custAccount
C. When using two variables of the same type, use a sequential number, for example date1, date2
D. Variables should start with a letter signifying the base type followed by an underscore (_), for example str s_name;
Answer: A

11. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. Now one of your colleagues asks for your help. He
has no idea about what types of templates are available in the Microsoft Dynamics AX report designer. So what’s your answer?
A. Only report templates.
B. Report and Section templates.
C. Report, Section and ProgrammableSection templates.
D. Report, Section, ProgrammableSection and Body templates.
Answer: A

12. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. In the following options, which of the following are
not best practice considerations?
A. The sort order of the data sent to the report.
B. Using AutoDesignSpecs instead of Generated Design.
C. What font and size the user has set up as report defaults.
D. The length of the fields and extended data types at the user’s installation.
Answer: A

13. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. In the following options, which statement is TRUE
about report templates?
A. A report with an auto design specification cannot use a template.
B. A report with a custom design specification cannot use a template.
C. Only reports based on an auto design specification inherit changes that are made to a report template.
D. Only reports based on a custom design specification inherit changes that are made to a report template.
Answer: B

14. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. Now one of your colleagues asks for your help. He
has no idea about IntelliMorph. So what’s your answer?
A. IntelliMorph is the tool you use to create a new label file.
B. IntelliMoprh is the automatic layout generation of Forms, Reports and Menus.
C. IntelliMorph is the Integrated Development Environment in Microsoft Dynamics AX.
D. IntelliMorph is used when data from more than one table needs to be shown on a form or a report.
Answer: A

15. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. How can you get a graphical view of Data or Class
models?
A. Drag the Tables or Classes into the Model Designer.
B. Right-click the Table and select "Print Data Model" or right-click the Class and select "Print Class Model".
C. Create a project including the specific Tables or Classes, then right-click the project node and select "Print Model".
D. Create a project including the specific Tables or Classes, then right-click the project node and select Add-Ins > Reverse Engineer.
Answer: C

16. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. In the following options, which would be considered
reporting best practices? (choose more than one)
A. Considering the size of amount fields in the user’s data.
B. Considering the printer that will be used for the report.
C. Considering the length of labels that may be rendered in different languages.
D. Considering the number of financial dimensions used at the user’s installation.
Answer: BC

17. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. And now you work as the systems developer. You
have been assigned a task to add online help to a new form you have created. So what should you do to achieve this?
A. You should create a .chm file using a third party product, override the Help method on the form design, returning the help file name and topic id.
B. You should expand the Application Documention > Forms node in the AOT, find the node for the form , right-click and select Edit. Add the help text to the Help
editing form
C. You should create a .chm file using a third party product, add the file to the AOT Help Files node, set the help file and help file topic properties on the form
design
D. You should create a .chm file using a third party product, add the file to the AOT Help Files node. Expand the Application Documention > Forms node in the AOT,
find the node for the form , right-click and select Properties. Set the help file and help topics propeties.
Answer: B

18. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. If you see on certain forms in the user interface is
text such as ‘@ABC160′, what could not be the cause of this?
A. The label files did not get deployed.
B. The Microsoft Dynamics AX database needs re-indexing.
C. The label file does not exist for the current language
D. A new label file was added but the corresponding .ali file was not deleted
Answer: A

19. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. How can you make sure that code in the Clicked
method of a button on a form is run on the server?
A. Set the Server property on the button to Yes
B. Set the RunOn property on the button to Server
C. Set the RunOn property on the menu item to Server
D. You cannot run code in the Clicked method on the server
Answer: C

20. You work in an International company which is called DONEX. And you’re in charge of the network of your company. How can the StringSize property of a new extended
data type, which is inherited from custAccount, be changed?
A. By changing the StringSize on custAccount.
B. By changing the StringSize on the new extended data type.
C. The StringSize of extended data types CANNOT be changed.
D. By changing the StringSize on the top-level parent of the custAccount.
Answer: C

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Exam : EMC E20-840
Title : Storage Management Expert Exam for Technology Architects

1. You are editing a StorageScope Layout Report for information and need to organize the information by the customer’s business units and projects. Each business unit has measurable projects. The customer’s business units have exclusive access to their respective arrays. Projects have exclusive use of servers.
Which approach will allow the StorageScope layouts to produce reporting on storage utilization by business units and projects?
A. Modify the Arrays Basic Layout to include filtering on the Groups field
B. Create Groups via the Console that represent the Projects and then copy and paste the appropriate arrays to each group
C. Create Groups via the Console that represent the Business Units and then copy and paste the appropriate arrays to each group
D. Create Hierarchical Groups via the Console that represent the Business Units and Projects and then copy and paste the appropriate hosts to each group
Answer: D

2. A customer currently has ControlCenter installed at a data center in Chicago. They want to bring another data center in Los Angeles into this infrastructure that does not have ControlCenter installed there.
You have determined that an additional Store will be needed to handle the additional hosts, arrays and switches in Los Angeles. You have tested the network and the average latency between the two sites is 27ms.
Where should the new ControlCenter Store host be placed?
A. Chicago data center on the same subnet as the existing ControlCenter Repository server
B. Chicago data center on a different subnet as the existing ControlCenter Repository server
C. Los Angeles data center on the same subnet as the existing ControlCenter Repository server
D. Los Angeles data center on a different subnet as the existing ControlCenter Repository server
Answer: A

3. A customer is managing 50 CLARiiON CX600s and 10 DMX1000Ps via ControlCenter. They would like to be alerted when any Customer Replaceable Unit on the CX600s fail. The alert must be received in ControlCenter. Which solution would you recommend?
A. Setup the CLARiiON Agent host as an SNMP trap designation on all the CX600s
B. Ensure that the ControlCenter "Storage Array Fault" alert is enabled for the CLARiiON Agent
C. Setup Navisphere Event Monitor in a Distributed deployment to monitor all Critical Array Faults for all CX600s
D. Setup Navisphere Event Monitor in a Centralized deployment to monitor all Critical Array Faults for all CX600s
Answer: B

4. A customer wants to do provisioning as well as capacity and performance reporting in an open systems SAN environment. The customer has HDS and EMC storage. Which product sets are used to design a solution?
A. Planning and Provisioning Package
B. Symmetrix Package, Monitoring and Reporting Package
C. Symmetrix Manager, SAN Manager, Performance Manager, StorageScope
D. Symmetrix Manager, SAN Manager, HDS Manager, Performance Manager, StorageScope
Answer: C

5. A customer has Cisco MDS series switches, and is using ControlCenter in their environment. To facilitate support, he would like the switches to dial-home to EMC in the event of an error. What is mandatory to ensure that this feature works properly?
A. Dedicated 56Kb modem, externally connected to each MDS switch
B. Dedicated phone connected to the telephone port of the service processor
C. OnAlert/ConnectEMC configured to enable dial-home capabilities via ControlCenter
D. Cisco MDS do not have dial-home capabilities. These switches only support email home notification
Answer: C

6. Your customer just purchased ControlCenter and installed Symmetrix Manager and the StorageScope licenses. They say they are missing the capability to assign devices to their hosts. What do you recommend?
A. Purchase the SAN Manager license
B. Open a Software Case, this must function
C. Purchase the Storage Management license
D. Purchase the Automated Resource Manager license
Answer: A

7. A customer is using BMC Patrol Enterprise Manager as their alert notification application and they want to integrate ControlCenter into the framework. Some of the equipment in the environment supports SNMP V2, which is the customer’s preference. This equipment is currently being monitored by ControlCenter, but alerts are being forwarded by direct SNMP traps. What would cause you to continue to send direct SNMP traps to BMC PEM for this equipment?
A. Not all ControlCenter alerts can be forwarded by the Gateway Agent
B. Gateway Agent can only be installed on a Windows server
C. ControlCenter Integration Gateway Agent supports only SNMP V1 traps
D. Firewall between the ControlCenter managed objects and the ControlCenter server
Answer: C

8. Navisphere is used in a datacenter to monitor and manage two (2) CLARiiON CX500s. The datacenter manager wants to set the security level for his storage administrator, so that she can make changes to the array configuration and allocate storage as needed. However, there are other activities, such as creating or deleting users that the manager does not want the administrator to perform. Within Navisphere, which role should be assigned to this user?
A. Monitor
B. Manager
C. Operator
D. Administrator
Answer: B

9. A Customer intends to deploy StorageScope FLR in their environment. Which factor helps to determine the backend database (Oracle or SQL Server) to be used?
A. Number of Databases, Exchange Servers and Files
B. Number of Databases, Exchange Servers and Hosts
C. Number of Databases, Hosts, Storage Arrays and NAS File Servers
D. Number of Databases, Exchange Servers, Hosts and NAS File Servers
Answer: A

10. A customer is preparing to upgrade their version of ControlCenter to the next major release. The end of the quarter is approaching, and the account team would like to have the upgrade performed as soon as possible. What must be done to perform the upgrade in accordance with EMC Policies and Procedures?
A. Submit a new qualifier and supporting documents to the SVC for approval
B. Just submit a CCA and proceed with the implementation after gaining approval
C. Since this is only an upgrade, the activity can be performed with no additional documentation
D. The architect can update the account’s PDG with the new software version information and then the installation can proceed
Answer: A

11. Which two [2] documents are required for a ControlCenter review and validation by the Solutions Validation Center (SVC)?
A. Scope
B. Qualifier
C. Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Work Breakdown Structure
Answer: BC

12. A Customer wants ControlCenter to monitor the percent of free space on all the Logical Volumes on his Windows servers. The monitoring frequency should be 15 min. A Critical alert should trigger only if the drive has been at 70% full for at least one hour. A Fatal alert should trigger at 90% full as soon as possible. What solution would you suggest?
A. One alert definition with two Management Policies
B. One alert definition with appropriate evaluation conditions
C. One alert definition with a Management Policy that will meet the customer requirement
D. Two alert definitions: One monitoring for the Critical condition and the other for the Fatal Condition
Answer: B

13. While considering the type and protection of the storage for the ControlCenter database, your customer is looking for a recommendation. Which option is the recommended best practice for database storage?
A. Use RAID-1 for the ControlCenter database
B. Use RAID-5 for the ControlCenter database
C. Use software based mirroring for the ControlCenter database
D. Due to the daily database exports unprotected disk is recommended
Answer: A

14. Your customer would like to integrate their Symmetrix and CLARiiON storage arrays into ControlCenter. They want to test the functions of the Storage Management Initiative Standards. What is the recommended installation to discover the arrays?
A. Solution Enabler CIMOM Provider and the SMI-S Agent
B. Storage Agent for Symmetrix and CLARiiON on an Agent Host
C. SMI-S Agent and Solution Enabler from the Console on an Agent Host
D. Storage Agent for Symmetrix, SDM Agent and Storage Agent for CLARiiON
Answer: A

15. The customer has an environment consisting of:
10 Symmetrix Arrays
20 CLARiiON Arrays
4 Cisco Switches
125 Open systems Hosts
ControlCenter Master and Host Agents are deployed to all 125 open system hosts.
ControlCenter StorageScope File Level Reporter (FLR) Agents are deployed to all 125 open systems hosts.
Which tools should be used to generate a report showing the correlation of disk utilization to directory utilization?
A. Custom StorageScope Layout with filtering
B. Excel spreadsheet with the StorageScope FLR API
C. Custom report program using the StorageScope API and the StorageScope FLR API
D. Basic StorageScope Layout with the StorageScope API and the StorageScope FLR API
Answer: C

16. All the Celerras in a Data Center are currently monitored via ControlCenter. The customer has expressed a concern that some Celerra events seen in Celerra Manager are displayed in ControlCenter while some are not displayed in ControlCenter even though all the ControlCenter Celerra Alerts are enabled.
Which solution would you recommend after you have identified the specific events which do not appear in ControlCenter?
A. Setup the Control Station and the ControlCenter Server as SNMP Trap destinations
B. Configure the Celerra Control Station to generate an SNMP trap when the events occur
C. Modify the Celerra MIB to include the trap definitions for these events and compile it on the ControlCenter Server and the Control Station
D. Modify the Celerra MIB to include the trap definitions for these events on the Control Station and setup the Control Station as an SNMP trap destination
Answer: B

17. A customer has integrated four (4) new DMX storage arrays into their ControlCenter environment for monitoring and management purposes. The total number of arrays being managed is now six (6) and the Storage Agent for Symmetrix is deployed on the ControlCenter server.
Ever since the new arrays have been under ControlCenter management, there have been large gaps in the WLA data for the arrays. They have an immediate need to analyze current DMX performance for their internal customers.
You have been tasked to review their current ControlCenter environment and recommend a solution which may resolve the issue and allow for them to perform their analysis.
What would be your initial recommendation?
A. Distribute additional Storage Agents for Symmetrix
B. Upgrade the memory on all servers attached to the DMX arrays
C. Upgrade the driver and firmware of the HBA’s installed on the ControlCenter server
D. Upgrade the ControlCenter environment to the latest ControlCenter release and service pack
Answer: A

18. Your customer wants to add custom defined fields to the ControlCenter database for Asset tracking. How are these fields defined?
A. Via an ODBC connection to the database
B. XML import into the ControlCenter Repository
C. Directly into the console by right clicking the object
D. Use the Administration section on the StorageScope interface
Answer: B

19. ControlCenter uses all of the following criteria for agent load balancing, except?
A. Agent Version
B. Deployment Order
C. Agent Server CPU Load
D. Distance to Managed Object
Answer: B

20. ControlCenter and StorageScope FLR are deployed at a site. The customer wants to be alerted when his SQL Server Data and Log files are nearly full? Which solution would you recommend?
A. Enable the ControlCenter SQL Server Tablespace Alert
B. Enable Microsoft SQL Server Enterprise Manager to generate an alert
C. Setup a threshold policy in StorageScopeFLR to monitor Database File Thresholds and generate an alert
D. Enable the ControlCenter Logical Volume Percent Free alert on all the drives on which the SQL Server instance is installed
Answer: C

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Storage Management Expert Exam for Technology Architects 认证作为全球IT领域专家 EMC 热门认证之一，是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。如果你正在准备 e20-840 考试，为 EMC Storage Management Expert Exam for Technology Architects认证做最后冲刺，又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟， Examsoon希望能助你成功。

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优点：具有学习模式，测试模式，线上自动升级
缺点：仅限固定电脑使用，不可打印为文本，只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式e20-840考试题库
优点：不需下载安装软件，方便用户打印和携带，但也带来了可随意制的弊端，因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的e20-840题库，一经发现立即取消其升级资格，且不予退款。
缺点：不具备测试模式，通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

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选择 Examsoon 190-825 题库

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Examsoon
部分最新免费190-825认证题库：（您也可以联系我下载部分最新190-825考试题库）

　
　
Exam : Lotus 190-825
Title : IBM WebSphere PORTAL 6 Deployment and Administration

1. Your WebSphere Portal environment is supposed to access a remote LDAP directory that is supported by another group in your organization. However, they will not allow changes to be made to their LDAP directory structure. Portal has requirements that cannot be met by their structure. Which of the following is the best possible solution?
A. Do not utilize the remote LDAP directory and create a local Cloudscape directory
B. Utilize the remote LDAP directory and disable all features that require customization
C. Utilize the remote LDAP directory and create a Lookaside database for additional profile information
D. Copy the remote LDAP directory into a local LDAP source and make the necessary customization needed to utilize the local source
Answer: C

2. Particular Portal productivity editors in the Document Manager portlet need to be disabled. Which of the following tasks must be performed?
A. Use Portlet Management to edit the properties of the Productivity editors portlet application
B. Select the Edit link on the Document manager portlet and uncheck the editors that must be disabled
C. Select the Design link on the Document manager portlet and uncheck the editors that must be disabled
D. Use the Manage Document Libraries portlet, select the Configure link and uncheck the editors that must be disabled
Answer: C

3. As the Portal administrator, you are exporting and transferring a document library from a staging system to a production system. You have successfully created an empty shared directory to hold the exported document library. Both the staging and production servers have write access to the shared directory. When you move the document library from the staging system to the production system, which of the following occurs to private drafts?
A. They are converted to submitted drafts
B. They are transferred without modifications
C. They will all be converted to the same UUID
D. They are appended a new document version number
Answer: B

4. Dana, a Portal user, is a member of multiple virtual portals in her company. Within the virtual portals and PAC, you have made restrictions on what is visible, including scoping resources. Which of the following Portal resources may not be controlled in this manner?
A. Portlets
B. Web modules
C. Portlet Applications
D. Composite applications
Answer: D

5. A common portlet is available to multiple virtual portals. However, you do not wish the marketing virtual portal to utilize a PIM portlet. Which of the following offers the ability to restrict the portlet from the marketing virtual portal users?
A. Portal Access Control
B. Portlet Security Control
C. Virtual Portal Restriction
D. Websphere Member Manager
Answer: A

6. Which of the following statements BEST describes how WebSphere Portal’s functionality is implemented on the WebSphere Application Server?
A. WebSphere Portal is deployed as a Web Application on the WebSphere Application Server
B. WebSphere Portal runs as an Enterprise Application on the WebSphere Application Server
C. WebSphere Portal runs a servlet within the WebSphere Application Server’s Web Container
D. WebSphere Portal is deployed as a portlet to WebSphere Application Server’s Web Container
Answer: B

7. In which of the following circumstances will a Consumer use the XML configuration interface to create a Producer when utilizing Web Services for Remote Portlets?
A. When the Consumer is offline
B. Every time that a Consumer needs to create a Producer
C. A Consumer does not create a Producer using the XML configuration interface
D. When there is no Web Services Definition Language document available to the Consumer
Answer: A

8. Margaret is in the process of copying a finance portlet application using the administrative pages. Which of the following is true regarding the portlet data and portlet application data when copied?
A. The portlet application data and the portlet data are copied from the original portlet
B. The portlet application and portlet are copied, but all the parameters are left blank for configuration by the administrator
C. The portlet application parameters are copied from the original application, but the portlet parameters are left blank in the copied portlet
D. The portlet application parameters are left blank since this is a new version of the portlet, but the portlet parameters are copied from the original portlet
Answer: A

9. In planning to utilize collaboration components, the existing Quickplace server utilizes a central LDAP directory based on Lotus Domino. Both the Quickplace and the LDAP server are accessed via SSL. Which of the following is correct if you wish to enable an IBM Lotus Sametime server into the environment?
A. Sametime must utilize SSL and must point to its own local directory
B. Sametime has the option of using SSL and must point to its own local directory
C. Sametime must utilize SSL and point to the same directory that Quickplace accesses
D. Sametime has the option of using SSL and point to the same directory that Quickplace accesses
Answer: C

10. ReleaseBuilder enables management of release configurations independent of which of the following?
A. XML configurations
B. User configurations
C. Staged configurations
D. Generation configurations
Answer: B

11. Composite applications can be defined by which of the following?
A. A group of applications that share a common theme
B. A list of applications available to the personalization server
C. A cluster of WebSphere Portal servers that share a common database
D. A compiled set of components that address a particular business need
Answer: D

12. Constance, a Portal user, is noticing that a portlet she utilizes takes a long time to render. Data is drawn from other portlets, some of which access remote data. Which of the following can the administrator implement to help reduce the time Constance waits for the portlet?
A. Portal clustering
B. Real-time database access
C. Parallel portlet rendering
D. Synchronous portlet transfer
Answer: C

13. Portlets can write message and trace information to log files to assist the portal administrator to investigate portlet errors and special conditions and help the portlet developer test and debug portlets. In which of the following locations are these logs maintained?
A. <app_server_root>/logs
B. <portal_server_root>/log/
C. <websphere_root>/portal/log
D. <app_server_root>/trace/logs
Answer: B

14. The company developers have provided you a new portlet for deployment in your company’s Portal cluster. Which of the following is the correct way to deploy the portlet to the cluster?
A. Deploy the portlet to one Portal cluster member in the cell with identical configurations
B. Deploy the portlet to the Deployment Manager specifying which cluster should receive the new portlet
C. Deploy the portlet to one Portal cluster member in the cell and let it propagate and run wpsconfig to activate the portlet
D. Manually update the Deployment Manager wmcluster.xml file to include the new portlet name and to which Portal cluster it should be deployed
Answer: C

15. The business units of your enterprise have needs for their own portals. However, the demand on server resources is not great enough to require parallel installations. In response, your enterprise chose virtual portals. Which of the following are available across each of the virtual portals?
A. Portal search
B. Document management
C. Portal property file definitions
D. Anonymous pages per virtual portal
Answer: D

16. When utilizing the IBM Portlet API, which of the following is valid regarding Cooperative Portlets?
A. They cannot use Click-to-Action
B. They support chained propagation of data
C. They cannot broadcast properties to all target portlets at one time
D. They can only use wires to pass properties from source portlets to target portlets
Answer: B

17. Which of the following best describes the difference between horizontal cloning and vertical clustering?
A. Vertical clustering takes advantage of the resources of a multiprocessor system; horizontal cloning allows for upward scalability
B. Vertical clustering allows for users to authenticate against multiple LDAP sources; horizontal cloning allows multiple servers to act as one server
C. Horizontal cloning replicates the back-end database in real-time; vertical clustering takes advantage of multiple Websphere servers as a single cell
D. Horizontal cloning allows multiple HTTP servers to server in a failover scenario; vertical clustering allows Portal servers to combine processor and memory into one virtual server
Answer: A

18. In order to implement a highly available END-TO-END security solution for a production portal environment, which of the following sets of components would be most useful?
A. Netegrity SiteMinder, Credentials vault, Dynamic Cache, Deployment Manager hot standby
B. Tivoli Access Manager, Load Balancing Edge component, Portal Cluster, LDAP server cluster
C. Tivoli Access Manager, Portal Cluster, Credential vault, Network-Attached Storage devices
D. Tivoli Access Manager, Netegrity SiteMinder, WebSphere Information Integrator, LDAP server cluster
Answer: B

19. You are utilizing ReleaseBuilder to stage configurations between two releases. You are tracking which configuration entities were removed, added or changed compared to the previous release. Which of the following are created to detect deviations between one configuration and another?
A. Staged updates
B. Deletion updates
C. Differential updates
D. Configuration updates
Answer: C

20. Members of a WebSphere Portal cluster exist on multiple physical machines to distribute the workload of a single logical WebSphere Portal image. What is this called?
A. Vertical scaling
B. Horizontal scaling
C. Multi-machine design
D. HTTP server separation
Answer: B

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优点：具有学习模式，测试模式，线上自动升级
缺点：仅限固定电脑使用，不可打印为文本，只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式190-825考试题库
优点：不需下载安装软件，方便用户打印和携带，但也带来了可随意制的弊端，因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的190-825题库，一经发现立即取消其升级资格，且不予退款。
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免费SC0-402学习资料

Filed under: SCP — admin @ 4:10 pm

最新SC0-402考试题库

Examsoon最新SC0-402认证真题，真题覆盖率达到90%以上。考不过全额退款保障，让您认证无忧。绝对真实来自Examsoon的高质量题库。

购买SC0-402考试题库请认准Examsoon标志！切勿因贪便宜而造成不必要的损失和遗憾。下载题库及任何SC0-402问题请与我站管理员联系！

SC0-402 考试是 SCP 公司的 Network Defense and Countermeasures (NDC) 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的SC0-402权威考试题库软件是SCP认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon绝对保证第一次参加 SC0-402 考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

选择 Examsoon SC0-402 题库

SC0-402题库购买时请一定要认准Examsoon标志，世界第一IT认证资料服务提供商中国服务中心。

Examsoon
SC0-402学习资料

Examsoon
SC0-402题库，不同于Testiinside SC0-402、certtinside SC0-402、Pass4sideSC0-402、TestkingSC0-402、Pass4sureSC0-402的题库资料，是全球IT认证资料供应力量，以高科技的仿真效果，完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题，保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

Examsoon SC0-402 的优势

SC0-402 考试是 SCP 公司的 Network Defense and Countermeasures (NDC) 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的 SC0-402 权威考试题库软件是 SCP 认证厂商的授权产品，Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 SC0-402考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

Network Defense and Countermeasures (NDC) 认证作为全球IT领域专家 SCP 热门认证之一，是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。如果你正在准备 SC0-402 考试，为 SCP Network Defense and Countermeasures (NDC)认证做最后冲刺，又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟， Examsoon希望能助你成功。

1、Examsoon考题大师SC0-402试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用本站的考试题库参加SC0-402 考试，我们保证您一次轻松通过考试；

3、Examsoon实行“一次不过全额退款”承诺。如果您购买我们SC0-402的考题，只要不是首次通过，凭盖有PROMETRIC或VUE考试中心钢印的考试成绩单，我们将退还您购买SC0-402考题大师的全部费用，绝对保证您的利益不受到任何的损失；

4、本站SC0-402题库根据SC0-402考试的变化动态更新，在厂家考题每次发生变化后，我们承诺2天内更新SC0-402题库。确保SC0-402考题的覆盖率始终都在95％以上；我们提供2种 SC0-402 考题大师版本供你选择。

5、软件版本SC0-402 考试题库
优点：具有学习模式，测试模式，线上自动升级
缺点：仅限固定电脑使用，不可打印为文本，只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式SC0-402考试题库
优点：不需下载安装软件，方便用户打印和携带，但也带来了可随意制的弊端，因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的SC0-402题库，一经发现立即取消其升级资格，且不予退款。
缺点：不具备测试模式，通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

Examsoon
部分最新免费SC0-402认证题库：（您也可以联系我下载部分最新SC0-402考试题库）

　
　
Exam : SCP SC0-402
Title : Network Defense and Countermeasures (NDC)

1. After a meeting between the IT department leaders and a security consultant, they decide to implement a new IDS in your network. You are later asked to explain to your team the type of IDS that is going to be implemented. Which of the following best describes the centralized design of a Host-Based IDS?
A. In a Centralized design, sensors (also called agents) are placed on each key host throughout the network analyzing the network traffic for intrusion indicators. Once an incident is identified the sensor notifies the command console.
B. In a Centralized design, the agents is on the single command console as the one that performs the analysis. There is a significant advantage to this method. The intrusion data can be monitored in real-time.
C. In a Centralized design, the IDS uses what are known as agents (also called sensors). These agents are in fact small programs running on the hosts that are programmed to detect network traffic intrusions. They communicate with the command console, or a central computer controlling the IDS.
D. In a Centralized design, sensors are installed in key positions throughout the network, and they all report to the command console. The sensors in this case, are full detection engines that have the ability to sniff network packets, analyze for known signatures, and notify the console with an alert if an intrusion is detected.
E. In a Centralized design, the data is gathered and sent from the host to a centralized location. There is no significant performance drop on the hosts because the agents simply gather information and send them elsewhere for analysis. However, due to the nature of the design, there is no possibility of real-time detection and response.
Answer: E

2. You are configuring your new IDS machine, where you have recently installed Snort. While you are working with this machine, you wish to create some basic rules to test the ability to log traffic as you desire. Which of the following Snort rules will log any tcp traffic from any host other than 172.16.40.50 using any port, to any host in the 10.0.10.0/24 network using any port?
A. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
B. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
C. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
D. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
E. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <- 10.0.10.0/24 any
Answer: B

3. You have finished configuration of your ISA server and are in the section where you secure the actual server itself. Of the three options presented to you, which of the following answer best describes the Limited Services option?
A. A Firewall that is a domain controller or an infrastructure server
B. A Firewall that is a stand-alone firewall
C. A Firewall that is a database server or an application server
D. A Firewall that is a stand-alone web server
E. A Firewall that is a domain controller and a web server
Answer: A

4. Which of the following defines the security policy to be used for securing communications between the VPN Client and Server?
A. Encapsulating Delimiters
B. Security Authentications
C. Encapsulating Security Payload
D. Security Associations
E. Authentication Header
Answer: D

5. You are reviewing the IDS logs and during your analysis you notice a user account that had attempted to log on to your network ten times one night between 3 and 4 AM. This is quite different from the normal pattern of this user account, as this user is only in the office from 8AM to 6PM. Had your IDS detected this anomaly, which of the following types of detection best describes this event?
A. External Intrusion
B. Internal Intrusion
C. Misuse Detection
D. Behavioral Use Detection
E. Hybrid Intrusion Attempt
Answer: D

6. Choose the best 3 responses
You are creating the User Account section of your organizational security policy. From the following options, select the questions to use for the formation of this section?
A. Are users allowed to make copies of any operating system files (including, but not limited to /etc/passwd or the SAM)?
B. Who in the organization has the right to approve the request for new user accounts?
C. Are users allowed to have multiple accounts on a computer?
D. Are users allowed to share their user account with coworkers?
E. Are users required to use password-protected screensavers?
F. Are users allowed to modify files they do not own, but have write abilities?
Answer: BCD

7. You are examining a packet from an unknown host that was trying to ping one of your protected servers and notice that the packets it sent had an IPLen of 20 byes and DgmLen set to 60 bytes.
What type of operating system should you believe this packet came from?
A. Linux
B. SCO
C. Windows
D. Mac OSX
E. Netware
Answer: C

8. You have found a user in your organization who has managed to gain access to a system that this user was not granted the right to use. This user has just provided you with a working example of which of the following?
A. Intrusion
B. Misuse
C. Intrusion detection
D. Misuse detection
E. Anomaly detection
Answer: A

9. After a meeting between the IT department leaders and a security consultant, they decided to implement a new IDS in your network. You are later asked to explain to your team the type of IDS that is going to be implemented. Which of the following best describes the distributed design of Host-Based IDS?
A. In a Distributed design, the network intrusion data is gathered and sent from the host to a single location. There is no significant performance drop on the hosts because the agents simply gather information and send them elsewhere for analysis.
However, due to the nature of the design, there is no possibility of real-time detection and response.
B. In a Distributed design, the IDS uses what are known as agents (also called sensors) to capture the network intrusion data. These agents are in fact small programs running on the hosts that are programmed to detect intrusions upon the host. They communicate with the command console, or a central computer controlling the IDS.
C. In a Distributed design, the agents on the hosts are the ones that perform the analysis. There is a significant advantage to this method. The intrusion data can be monitored in real-time. The flip side to this is that the hosts themselves may experience a bit of a performance drop as their computer is engaged in this work constantly.
D. In a Distributed design, sensors (also called agents) are placed on each key host throughout the network
analyzing the network traffic for intrusion indicators. Once an incident is identified the sensor notifies the command console.
E. In a Distributed design, sensors are installed in key positions throughout the network, and they all report to the command console. The sensors in this case, are full detection engines that have the ability to sniff network packets, analyze for known signatures, and notify the console with an alert if an intrusion is detected.
Answer: C

10. What step in the process of Intrusion Detection as shown in the exhibit would determine if given alerts were part of a bigger intrusion, or would help discover infrequent attacks?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 12
D. 10
E. 4
Answer: C

11. Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Trojan Horse Scan
B. Back Orifice Scan
C. NetBus Scan
D. Port Scan
E. Ping Sweep
Answer: B

12. Choose the best 3 responses
You have just installed a new firewall and explained the benefits to your CEO.
Next you are asked what some of the limitations of the firewall are. Which of the following are issues where a firewall cannot help to secure the network?
A. Poor Security Policy
B. Increased ability to enforce policies
C. End node virus control
D. Increased ability to enforce policies
E. Social Engineering
Answer: ACE

13. Choose the best 2 responses
You have been chosen to manage the new security system that is to be implemented next month in your network. You are determining the type of access control to use. What are the two types of Access Control that may be implemented in a network?
A. Regulatory Access Control
B. Mandatory Access Control
C. Discretionary Access Control
D. Centralized Access Control
E. Distributed Access Control
Answer: BC

14. While preparing to implement a new security policy at your company, you have researched the many reasons people are both accepting and resisting of new policies. Which of the following is not a reason for an employee to resist a new security policy?
A. The employee simply does not like change, and takes a while to get used to new things.
B. The employee is a new hire, and interprets the policy as a requirement and part of the new hire paperwork.
C. The employee is convinced the policy will impact his or her ability to do their job, which could be viewed as in the way of their career.
D. The employee simply likes to be in the middle, and lock the boat.?
E. The employee is convinced the organization is spying on their every move, and do not want their work place to fall under the big-brother pattern.
Answer: B

15. What technology is being employed to resist SYN floods by having each side of the connection attempt create its own sequence number (This sequence number contains a synopsis of the connection so that if/when the connection attempt is finalized the fist part of the attempt can be re-created from the sequence number)?
A. SYN cookie
B. SYN floodgate
C. SYN gate
D. SYN damn
E. SYN flood break
Answer: A

16. You have been given the task of installing a new firewall system for your network. You are analyzing the different implementation options. Which of the following best describes a Screened Host?
A. This is when one device is configured to run as a packet filter, granting or denying access based on the content of the headers.
B. This is when a packet is received on one interface and sent out another interface.
C. This is when a device has been configured with more than one network interface, and is running proxy software to forward packets back and forth between the interfaces.
D. This is when the device reads only the session layer and higher headers to grant or deny access to the packet.
E. This is when the network is protected by multiple devices, one running as a proxy server and another as a packet filter. The packet filter only accepting connections from the proxy server.
Answer: E

17. Choose the best 3 responses
You have configured your network to use Firewall-1 and you manage it from the Management GUI. What are the three applications that make up the Management GUI for Firewall-1?
A. GUI Controller
B. Log Viewer
C. Status Viewer
D. Policy Editor
E. Packet Editor
Answer: BCD

18. You are reviewing your companys IPChains Firewall and see the command (minus the quotes) ?! 10.10.10.216?as part of a rule, what does this mean?
A. Traffic destined for host 10.10.10.216 is exempt from filtering
B. Traffic originating from host 10.10.10.216 is exempt from filtering
C. Any host except 10.10.10.216
D. Only host 10.10.10.216
E. Traffic destined for 10.10.10.216 gets sent to the input filter.
F. Traffic originating from 10.10.10.216 gets sent to the input filter
Answer: C

19. To manage the risk analysis of your organization you must first identify the method of analysis to use. Which of the following organizations defines the current standards of risk analysis methodologies?
A. NIST
B. CERT
C. F-ICRC
D. NBS
E. NSA
Answer: A

20. To verify that your IPSec implementation is working as you intended, you sniff the network after the implementation has been completed. You are looking for specific values in the captures that will indicate to you the type of packets received. You analyze the packets, including headers and payload. IPSec works at which layer of the OSI model?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
E. Layer 5
Answer: C

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Exam : HP HP0-M18
Title : HP LoadRunner Software

1. Which LoadRunner component runs the Vuser that generates the load?
A.VuGen
B.Analysis
C.Controller
D.load generator/host
Answer: D

2. What is an external data source?
A.user ID
B.password
C.e-mail address
D.purchase order number
Answer: D

3. Which performance test objective is met when determining if the system is stable enough to go into production?
A.reliability
B.regression
C.acceptance
D.capacity planning
E.product evaluation
F.bottleneck identification
Answer: C

4. When running a debug run, what should you be looking for?
A.system performs as expected under load
B.no errors pertaining to running the load test
C.all server CPU and memory utilization below 50%
D.transaction response times that are higher than expected
Answer: B

5. What instructs LoadRunner to prepare the Vusers so they are in the ready state?
A.real-life
B.initialize
C.duration
D.start Vusers
Answer: B

6. Which performance test objective is met when determining if the new version of the software adversely affects response time?
A.reliability
B.regression
C.acceptance
D.capacity planning
E.product evaluation
F.bottleneck identification
Answer: B

7. Which performance test checks the stability of a system over an extended period of time?
A.load test
B.volume test
C.scalability test
D.component test
Answer: B

8. Click the Exhibit button.
View the Business Process Profile table for the e-commerce site shown in the exhibit.
Which business processes are the most critical to record? (Select two.)
A.Sign in
B.Checkout
C.Contact Us
D.View sale items
E.View outlet items
Answer: BD

9. Click the Exhibit button.
You are running a 100% load test. The exhibit shows a list of business processes, the desired number of business processes per hour, and the number of transactions per business process.
How many transactions should complete during the one-hour full load test?
A.2,000
B.20,000
C.55,000
D.380,000
Answer: C

10. While analyzing the Vuser log files from a scenario run, you see the following log file from one of the Vusers.
Start auto log message stack – Iteration 1.Starting action BookFlight.
BookFlight.c(5): Notify: Transaction WT_00_Home_Page started.BookFlight.c(7): Error -27796: Failed to connect to server 127.0.0.1:1080 [10061]
End auto log message stack.
What was the Run-time setting, Logging option set to?
A.Standard Logging
B.Extended Logging
C.Always send a message
D.Send a message only when an error occurs
Answer: D

11. What is the first indication of a performance problem?
A.The network delay time is above 15ms.
B.The DNS is not resolving the machine name.
C.The Web servers available memory drops below 1 GB.
D.The end user experiences higher than expected response times.
Answer: D

12. What are the main types of service level agreements available in the Controller and Analysis? (Select two.)
A.Per Time Interval
B.Errors per Second
C.Over the Whole Run
D.Average Hits per Run
E.Average Throughput per Run
F.Average Transaction Response Time
Answer: AC

13. What is the first stage of the load testing process?
A.Plan the Load Test
B.Create the Scenario
C.Execute the Scenario
D.Create VuGen Scripts
Answer: A

14. Which performance test finds the behavior and performance of each tier?
A.load test
B.volume test
C.scalability test
D.component test
Answer: D

15. Which performance test is used to find the systems breaking point?
A.load test
B.volume test
C.scalability test
D.component test
Answer: C

16. Which performance test objective is met when determining the cause of performance degradation?
A.reliability
B.regression
C.acceptance
D.capacity planning
E.product evaluation
F.bottleneck identification
Answer: F

17. You are a LoadRunner expert consultant and have been assigned to a client that needs to performance test an application that has not yet been released.
How can you obtain information about the applications anticipated load?
A.estimate how the application will be used
B.obtain the necessary information from web logs
C.look in the applications database to determine the anticipated load
D.consult with the business experts to determine the anticipated load
Answer: D

18. What allows you to gather performance metrics for a variety of major backend system components including firewalls, application servers, and database servers?
A.monitors
B.scenarios
C.transactions
D.service level agreement
Answer: A

19. Which performance test determines whether the system handles anticipated real-world load?
A.load test
B.volume test
C.scalability test
D.component test
Answer: A

20. What is the recommended transaction monitoring frequency for large scenarios?
A.3
B.10
C.15
D.30
Answer: C

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Exam : Microsoft 70-293繁体
Title : Planning and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure

1. 多项选择题
您是公司的网络管理员。公司网络由一个 Active Directory 域组成。
公司的书面安全策略要求，担任文件服务器角色的计算机必须具有最小的用于事件日志设置的文件大小。过去，由于事件日志文件太小，记录的事件被遗失。您希望确保事件日志文件足够大来保存历史记录。您也希望安全事件日志会被手动清除，以确保不会有安全信息遗失。应用程序日志必须在需要时清除事件。
您创建一个名为 Fileserver.inf 的安全模板来满足这些要求。您需要测试每台文件服务器，并在需要时采取相应的纠正措施。您使用 Fileserver.inf 审核一台文件服务器，接收到相关材料中所示的结果。（请单击"相关材料"按钮以查看。）
您希望只进行满足这些要求所需要的修改。
您应该采取哪两项措施？（每个正确答案都给出了部分解决方案。请选择两个答案。）
A. 在文件服务器上修改"应用程序日志大小最大值"设置。
B. 在文件服务器上修改"安全日志最大值"设置。
C. 在文件服务器上修改"系统日志大小最大值"设置。
D. 在文件服务器上修改"应用程序日志保留方法"设置。
E. 在文件服务器上修改"安全日志保留方法"设置。
F. 在文件服务器上修改"系统日志保留方法"设置。
Answer: BE

2. 多项选择题
您是公司的网络管理员。公司网络由一个 Active Directory 域组成。该域的功能级别为 Windows Server 2003。域内包含一个名为 Servers 的组织单位 (OU)，其中包含了公司所有的 Windows Server 2003 资源服务器。该域也包含一个名为 Workstations 的组织单位，其中包含了公司所有的 Windows XP Professional 客户端计算机。
您为资源服务器配置一个名为 Server.inf 的基线安全模板，为客户端计算机配置一个名为 Workstation.inf 的基线安全模板。Server.inf 模板包含数百个设置，其中包括启用了继承复制的文件和注册表权限设置。Workstation.inf 模板包含 20 个安全设置，但其中都没有包含文件和注册表权限设置。
资源服务器在工作时间以接近满负荷的状态运行。
您需要应用基线安全模板，以便可以定期强制设置。您需要以最小的工作量完成这项任务，同时又要最小化对资源服务器的影响。
您应该怎么办？
A. 创建一个组策略对象（GPO）并将其链接至该域。将 Server.inf 和 Workstation.inf 模板都导入到 GPO。
B. 将 Server.inf 和 Workstation.inf 模板都导入到默认域策略组策略对象（GPO）。
C. 在每台资源服务器上，使用 secedit 命令创建一个每周计划执行的任务，以便在非高峰时间应用 Server.inf 设置。创建一个组策略对象（GPO）并将其链接至 Workstations OU。将 Workstation.inf 模板导入到 GPO。
D. 在每台资源服务器上，使用 secedit 命令创建一个每周计划执行的任务，以便在非高峰时间应用 Server.inf 设置。将 Workstation.inf 模板导入默认域策略组策略对象（GPO）。
Answer: C

3. 多项选择题
您是公司的网络管理员。公司网络由一个 Active Directory 域组成。所有服务器都运行 Windows Server 2003。
该网络包含一些启用 Terminal Server 的服务器。终端服务器寄存了一些当前需要用户成为 Power Users 组成员的传统应用程序。
公司的书面安全政策中的新要求规定， Power Users 组在所有资源服务器上都必须是空的。
在实现新的安全要求时，您需要保持在终端服务器上运行传统应用程序的能力。
您应该怎么办？
A. 将 Domain Users 全局组添加到域内的 Remote Desktop Users 内置组。
B. 将 Domain Users 全局组添加到每个终端服务器上的 Remote Desktop Users 本地组。
C. 修改 Compatws.inf 安全模板设置，以允许本地 Users 组的成员运行这些应用程序。将该安全模板导入"默认域控制器策略组策略"对象（GPO）。
D. 修改 Compatws.inf 安全模板设置，以允许本地 Users 组的成员运行这些应用程序。将修改的模板应用到每个终端服务器。
Answer: D

4. 多项选择题
您是公司的网络管理员。所有域控制器都运行 Windows Server 2003。公司网络包含 50 台 Windows 98 客户端计算机、300 台 Windows 2000 Professional 计算机和 150 台 Windows XP Professional 计算机。
按照网络设计规范，Kerberos 5 身份验证协议必须用于内部网络上的所有客户端计算机。
您需要确保 Kerberos 5 身份验证协议用于内部网络上的所有客户端计算机。
您应该怎么办？
A. 在每个域控制器上，禁用安全信道通讯的服务器消息块 (SMB) 签名和加密。
B. 用新的 Windows XP Professional 更换所有 Windows 98 计算机。
C. 在 Windows 98 计算机上安装 Active Directory Client Extensions 软件。
D. 将所有 Windows 98 计算机升级到 Windows NT Workstation 4.0。
Answer: B

5. 热区题
您是公司的网络管理员。如答题区所示，公司网络由一个 intranet 和一个外围网络组成。外围网络包含：
一台名为 Server1 的 Windows Server 2003，Web Edition 计算机。
一台名为 Server2 的 Windows Server 2003，Standard Edition 计算机。
一台名为 Server3 的 Windows Server 2003，Enterprise Edition 计算机。
一个由两台 Windows Server 2003，Web Edition 计算机组成的 Web 服务器场。
外围网络上的所有服务器均为同一个工作组的成员。
设计组计划创建一个使用外围网络上现有服务器的新 Active Directory 域。新域将支持外围网络上的 Web 应用程序。设计组要求外围网络域必须具有容错功能。
您需要选择外围网络上的哪些服务器需要被配置为域控制器。
您应升级哪些服务器？
要回答问题，请在答题区内选择相应的服务器。
Answer: 答题区 Server1Web 服务器场Server2Server3Intranet外围网络Internet(D AND B) AND NOT (A OR C OR E)

6. 多项选择题
您是公司的网络管理员。您需要测试一个新应用程序。
该应用程序需要两个处理器和 2 GB 的 RAM。此应用程序还要求应用程序服务器上的共享文件夹，并要求在客户端计算机上安装软件。
您制订测试计划。您在测试实验室装配一台服务器。您在服务器上安装 Windows Server 2003, Web Edition。您在服务器上安装应用程序。您在测试实验室内的 20 台客户端计算机上安装应用程序的客户端软件组件。
您测试该应用程序，发现只有部分客户端计算机可以运行该应用程序。您关闭成功运行了该应用程序的客户端计算机，然后再次测试。第一次测试时失败的客户端计算机现在成功运行该应用程序。
您需要查明故障原因和更新测试计划。
您应该怎么办？
A. 将默认应用程序池的最大工作进程数增加至 20。
B. 使用"添加/删除程序"添加应用程序服务器 Windows 组件。
C. 将默认应用程序池的"应用程序池标识"更改为"本地服务"。
D. 将测试服务器操作系统更改为 Windows Server 2003，Standard Edition 或 Windows Server 2003，Enterprise Edition。
Answer: D

7. 多项选择题
您是公司的网络管理员。公司网络由一个 Active Directory 域组成。所有域控制器都运行 Windows Server 2003。所有客户端计算机都运行 Windows XP Professional。
公司有一个在 UNIX 服务器上运行的旧版应用程序。旧版应用程序使用 LDAP 协议在 Active Directory 中查询员工信息。
域控制器当前已使用默认安全设置进行配置。您需要为这些域控制器配置增强的安全设置。特别是您希望配置更强的密码设置、审核设置和锁定设置。您希望对旧版应用程序正常运行造成的干扰降低到最低的程度。
您决定使用预定义的安全模板。您需要选择相应的预定义安全模板来应用到这些域控制器。
您应该怎么办？
A. 将 Setup security.inf 模板应用到域控制器。
B. 将 DC security.inf 模板应用到域控制器。
C. 将 Securedc.inf 模板应用到域控制器。
D. 将 Rootsec.inf 模板应用到域控制器。
Answer: C

8. 多项选择题
您是公司的网络管理员。所有服务器都运行 Windows Server 2003。
您配置一个名为 Baseline.inf 的基线安全模板。几个运作组负责创建包含了符合作业要求设置的模板。您接收到下表中所示的模板。
作业组同意，如果出现设置冲突，下表中列出的优先级顺序会建立结果设置。
您需要创建一个或多个组策略对象 (GPO) 来实现这些安全设置。您希望最小化在不同的运作组请求修改时需要的工作量。您希望将修改各个运作组的请求所需要的工作量减到最小。
您应该怎么办？
A. 创建一个 GPO，然后按照以下顺序导入下列模板：Baseline.inf，Sec.inf。为每个服务器角色创建一个 GPO，然后只将用于该角色的特定模板导入到各个相应的 GPO。
B. 创建一个 GPO，然后按照以下顺序导入下列模板：Sec.inf, Baseline.inf。为每个服务器角色创建一个 GPO，然后只将用于该角色的特定模板导入到各个相应的 GPO。
C. 为每个服务器角色创建一个 GPO，然后按照以下顺序导入下列模板：Baseline.inf，特定服务器角色模板，Sec.inf.
D. 创建一个 GPO，然后按照以下顺序导入下列模板：Sec.inf，Db.inf，File.inf，Baseline.inf。
Answer: A

9. 多项选择题
您是公司的网络管理员。公司网络由一个 Active Directory 域组成。该网络包含 10 台域控制器和 50 台应用程序服务器角色的服务器。所有服务器都运行 Windows Server 2003。
这些应用程序服务器，已经使用针对其应用程序服务器角色的自定义安全设置，进行了配置。应用程序服务器必须能够审核登录事件、对象访问事件和系统事件。应用程序服务器必须拥有能够满足复杂要求的密码，必须能够强制保存密码记录，以及强制密码时效。应用程序服务器还必须得到保护，在验证期间免受拦截式攻击 (man-in-the-middle attacks)。
您需要定期部署和刷新自定义安全设置。您还需要能够验证审核期间的自定义安全设置。
您应该怎么办？
A. 创建自定义安全模板，并使用"组策略"对其进行应用。
B. 创建自定义 IPSec 策略，并使用"组策略"对其进行指定。
C. 创建和应用自定义管理模板。
D. 创建自定义应用程序服务器映像，并使用 RIS 对其进行部署。
Answer: A

10. 多项选择题
您是公司的网络管理员。公司网络由一个 Active Directory 域组成。该网络包含 50 台运行 Windows Server 2003 的应用程序服务器。
这些应用程序服务器的安全配置不统一。这些应用程序服务器是由本地管理员部署的，这些管理员根据自己的经验和技术为每台应用程序服务器配置了不同的设置。他们使用不同的身份验证方法、审核设置和帐户策略设置对应用程序服务器进行了配置。
安全组最近完成了一项新的网络安全设计。该设计包括一个用于所有服务器上安全设置的基线配置。该基线安全设置使用 Hisecws.inf 预定义的安全模板。设计也要求用于应用程序角色服务器的修改设置。这些设置包括系统服务启动要求，重命名管理员帐户，以及更严格的帐户锁定策略。安全组创建了一个名为 Application.inf 的包含了修改设置的安全模板。
您需要计划新安全设计的部署。您需要应用程序服务器的所有安全设置都是标准化的，并且在部署之后，所有应用程序服务器上的安全设置都符合设计要求。
您应该怎么办？
A. 先应用 Setup security.inf 模板，再应用 Hisecws.inf 模板，然后再应用 Application.inf 模板。
B. 先应用 Application.inf 模板，然后应用 Hisecws.inf 模板。
C. 先应用 Application.inf 模板，再应用 Setup security.inf 模板，然后再应用 Hisecws.inf 模板。
D. 先应用 Setup security.inf 模板，然后应用 Application.inf 模板。
Answer: A

11. 多项选择题
您是公司的网络管理员。公司网络由一个 Active Directory 域组成。该网络包含两个 Windows Server 2003 域控制器、两个 Windows 2000 Server 域控制器和两个 Windows NT Server 4.0 域控制器。
财务部门的所有文件服务器均位于一个名为 Finance Servers 的组织单位（OU）中。工资部门的所有文件服务器均位于一个名为 Payroll Servers 的 OU 中。Payroll Servers OU 是 Finance Servers OU 的子 OU。
公司的财务部门书面安全策略规定，部门服务器必须具有通过默认设置增强的安全设置。公司的工资部门书面安全策略规定，部门服务器必须具有来自默认设置的增强安全设置，并且必须已经为文件或文件夹删除启用了审核。
您需要为财务和工资部门计划安全策略设置。
您应该怎么办？
A. 创建一个组策略对象 (GPO) 以应用 Compatws.inf 安全模板到计算机对象，并将其链接到 Finance Servers OU。
创建第二个 GPO 在计算机对象上启用"审核对象访问"审核策略，并将其链接到 Payroll Servers OU。
B. 创建一个组策略对象 (GPO) 以应用 Securews.inf 安全模板到计算机对象，并将其链接到 Finance Servers OU。
创建第二个 GPO 在计算机对象上启用"审核对象访问"审核策略，并将其链接到 Payroll Servers OU。
C. 创建一个组策略对象 (GPO) 以应用 Compatws.inf 安全模板到计算机对象，并将其链接到 Finance Servers OU。
创建第二个 GPO 以应用 Hisecws.inf 安全模板到计算机对象，并将其链接到 Payroll Servers OU。
D. 创建一个组策略对象 (GPO) 以应用 Securews.inf 安全模板到计算机对象，并将其链接到 Finance Servers OU 和 Payroll Servers OU。
创建第二个 GPO 在计算机对象上启用"审核对象访问"审核策略，并将其链接到 Payroll Servers OU。
Answer: B

12. 多项选择题
您是公司的网络管理员。公司网络由一个 Active Directory 域组成。公司有一个内部网络和一个周边网络。内部网络由防火墙保护。周边网络上的应用程序服务器可以通过 Internet 访问。
您正在以应用程序服务器角色部署 10 台 Windows Server 2003 计算机。这些服务器将位于周边网络，且不是域的成员。这些服务器将只寄存公开可用的网页。
网络设计规范要求，自定义安全设置必须应用到应用程序服务器。自定义安全设置必须每天自动刷新，以确保符合设计规范。
您为应用程序服务器创建名为 Baseline1.inf 的自定义安全模板。您需要符合设计要求。
您应该怎么办？
A. 将 Baseline1.inf 导入"默认域策略组策略"对象（GPO）。
B. 在每个应用程序服务器上创建一个任务，每天配合 Baseline1.inf 运行 "安全配置和分析"。
C. 在每个应用程序服务器上创建一个任务，每天配合 Baseline1.inf 运行 secedit 命令。
D. 在"默认域策略组策略"对象（GPO）中创建一个启动脚本，配合 Baseline1.inf 运行 secedit 命令。
Answer: C

13. 多项选择题
您是公司的网络管理员。公司网络由一个 Active Directory 域组成。所有服务器都运行 Windows Server 2003。所有客户端计算机都运行 Windows XP Professional。
Active Directory 域包含三个组织单位 (OU)：Payroll Users、Payroll Servers 和 Finance Servers。工资部门用户使用的 Windows XP Professional 计算机位于 Payroll Users OU 中。工资部门用户使用的 Windows Server 2003 计算机位于 Payroll Servers OU 中。财务部门用户使用的 Windows Server 2003 计算机位于 Finance Servers OU 中。
您正在为工资部门计划基线安全配置。公司的书面安全策略要求，与 Payroll Servers OU 中服务器的所有网络通信都必须使用 IPsec 进行安全保护。书面安全策略规定，IPSec 一定不能用在公司的其它服务器上。
您需要确保工资部门的基线安全配置符合此书面安全策略。您也需要确保 Payroll Users OU 的成员可以访问 Payroll Servers OU 和 Finance Servers OU 中的资源。
您应该怎么办？
A. 创建一个组策略对象 (GPO)，并指派安全服务器（需要安全）IPSec 策略设置。将此 GPO 链接到 Payroll Servers OU。
创建第二个 GPO，并指派客户端（仅响应）IPSec 策略设置。将第二个 GPO 链接到 Payroll Users OU。
B. 创建一个组策略对象 (GPO)，并指派安全服务器（需要安全）IPSec 策略设置。将此 GPO 链接到 Payroll Servers OU 和 Finance Servers OU。
创建第二个 GPO，并指派客户端（仅响应）IPSec 策略设置。将第二个 GPO 链接到 Payroll Users OU。
C. 创建一个组策略对象 (GPO)，并指派服务器（请求安全）IPSec 策略设置。将此 GPO 只链接到 Payroll Servers OU。
创建第二个 GPO，并指派客户端（仅响应）IPSec 策略设置。将第二个 GPO 链接到 Payroll Users OU。
D. 创建一个组策略对象 (GPO)，并指派服务器（请求安全）IPSec 策略设置。将此 GPO 链接到 Payroll Servers OU 和 Finance Servers OU。
创建第二个 GPO，并指派客户端（仅响应）IPSec 策略设置。将第二个 GPO 链接到 Payroll Users OU。
Answer: A

14. 多项选择题
您是公司的网络管理员。公司网络由一个 Active Directory 域组成。该网络包含 80 台运行 Windows Server 2000 的 Web 服务器。在这些 Web 服务器部署的时候， IIS 锁定向导就已经启用。
您的公司正计划将其 Web 服务器升级到 Windows Server 2003。您将所有 Web 服务器移到一个名为 Web Servers 组织单位 (OU)。
您要为这些 Web 服务器计划基线安全配置。公司的书面安全策略规定，在这些服务器上必须禁用所有不必要的服务。测试显示服务器升级过程使以下不必要的服务被启用：
SMTP
Telnet
您的 Web 服务器基线安全配置计划必须符合此书面安全策略。
您需要确保所有不必要的服务在 Web 服务器上总是被禁用的。
您应该怎么办？
A. 创建一个组策略对象 (GPO) 应用一个禁用不必要服务的登录脚本。将此 GPO 链接到 Web Servers OU。
B. 创建一个组策略对象（GPO），并导入 Hisecws.inf 安全模板。将此 GPO 链接到 Web Servers OU。
C. 创建一个组策略对象 (GPO) ，将不必要服务的启动类型设置为"禁用"。将此 GPO 链接到 Web Servers OU。
D. 创建一个组策略对象 (GPO) 应用一个启动脚本来停止不必要的服务。将此 GPO 链接到 Web Servers OU。
Answer: C

15. 拖放题
您是公司的网络管理员。如答题区所示，公司有一个内部网络和一个外围网络。
内部网络由一个 Active Directory 域组成。该内部网络包含一台名为 DC1 的 Windows Server 2003 域控制器，该控制器运行 DNS Server 服务。内部网络还包含一台名为 Server1 的 Windows Server 2003 文件服务器，该服务器运行 DHCP Server 服务。公司网络包含 500 台 Windows XP Professional 计算机。
外围网络包含一个名为 Web1 的公共 Web 服务器。内部网络通过防火墙连接到外围网络。外围网络连接到 Internet。
您需要计划一个 IP 地址策略。IP 地址策略必须提供从内部网络到 Web1 的 TCP/IP 连接。公司希望通过尽可能自动分配 IP 地址来减少管理费用。
您需要为网络上的计算机选择合适的 IP 地址分配方法。
您应该怎么办？
要回答问题，请将合适的 IP 地址分配方法拖移到答题区内的相应计算机。
方法？IP 地址分配方法静态 DHCP
Answer: 答题区 Internet路由器Web1EthernetEthernetDC1Server1客户端计算机内部网络外围网络防火墙 E2 AND C1 AND B1 AND A1

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Exam : SUN 310-092
Title : Sun Cert Bus Component Developer Java EE Platform 5, Upgrade

1. A developer wants to create a Java Persistence query that will include a subquery. Which three are true? (Choose three.)
A. Subqueries can be used in a FROM clause.
B. Subqueries can be used in a WHERE clause.
C. The ANY expression can be used only with a subquery.
D. The EXISTS expression can be used only with a subquery.
E. The MEMBER expression can be used only with a subquery.
Answer: BCD

2. A stateful session bean contains a number of instance variables. The types of instance variables A and B are NOT serializable. Instance variable B is a complex type which is populated by many business calls, and can, therefore, NOT be refilled by the client without starting all over. A helper instance variable C is defined as having a Serializable type, and can hold all the information which is in variable B. For example, B is of type XML-DOM Tree and C of type String. Which two solutions, when combined, maintain the state of the session bean over a passivation and activation by the container? (Choose two.)
A. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in the beans no-arg constructor.
B. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @PostCreate annotated method.
C. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @PostActivate annotated method.
D. Instance variable A must be made null and instance variable B must be converted to a Serializable type and assigned to another instance variable in a @PreDestroy annotated method.
E. Instance variable A must be defined transient. Instance variable B must be converted to a Serializable type, set to null, and assigned to the instance variable C in a @PrePassivate annotated method.
Answer: CE

3. Within a Java EE environment, which annotation can be used to inject an entity manager factory?
A. @Entity
B. @Factory
C. @JTAFactory
D. @PersistenceUnit
E. @PersistenceContext
Answer: D

4. A Java Persistence application uses entities mapped to tables from two datasources in the same transaction. What statement is correct?
A. This is NOT possible.
B. The entities must be packaged into two persistence units.
C. The entities can be packaged into a single persistence unit
D. The entities must be packaged using two different persistence.xml files.
Answer: B

5. The Java Persistent API defines certain rules for persistent entities. These rules are required by the persistent provider to manage entities at runtime. Which statement is correct, assuming NO mapping descriptor is used?
A. Entities must extend a persistent base class.
B. Entities must implement the interface PersistentEntity to be managed by the persistent provider.
C. A field without a transient modifier must be annotated as @Persistent to be stored in the database.
D. A field without a transient modifier must be annotated as @Transient to NOT be stored in the database.
Answer: D

6. An Application Assembler is given the following stateless session bean:
10. @Stateless public class MyBean implements MyInt {
11. @RolesAllowed("SECRET")
12. public void methodA(int x) {}
13. public void methodA(String y) {}
14. public void methodB(String z) {}
15. }
A deployment descriptor is also supplied, a portion of which reads as follows:
20. <method-permission>
21. <role-name>AGENT</role-name>
22. <method>
23. <ejb-name>MyBean</ejb-name>
24. <method-name>methodA</method-name>
25. </method>
26. </method-permission>
Which statement is true?
A. A client in any role will be able to access any of the methods.
B. A client in the role "AGENT" will be able to access any of the methods.
C. A client in the role "SECRET" will be able to access any of the methods.
D. A client in the role "AGENT" will be able to access methodB and methodA(String), but not methodA(int).
E. A client in the role "SECRET" will be able to access methodA(int) and methodB, but NOT methodA(String).
Answer: B

7. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. All types of enterprise beans can be transaction-aware.
B. Typically, fine-grained objects, such as an employee record, should be remotely accessible.
C. The client view of any given enterprise bean will be consistent across all EJB 3.0 containers without the need to recompile the bean.
D. As long as a given enterprise bean is NOT recompiled, its security attributes are guaranteed to be consistent across all EJB 3.0 containers in which it is deployed.
Answer: AC

8. The Java Persistence API defines the semantics of the remove operation and the entity lifecycle states. Which statement is true when the remove method is invoked on an entity X?
A. If X is a removed entity it becomes managed.
B. If X is a new entity it will be removed from the database.
C. The remove method is always cascaded to related entities.
D. If X is a detached entity an IllegalArgumentException will be thrown.
Answer: D

9. A developer is creating an entity which is mapped to a table that has a primary key constraint defined on two character columns and would like to use mapping defaults as much as possible to simplify the code. Which two mapping options can be chosen? (Choose two.)
A. Use an @Id property that constructs a private field as a concatenation of two columns.
B. Use a separate class to map those two columns and use an @IdClass annotation to denote the primary key field or property in the entity.
C. Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and use an @EmbeddedId annotation to denote a single primary key field or property in the entity.
D. Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and add two fields or properties to the entity, each marked as @Id, that correspond to the fields or properties in the embeddable class.
E. Use a separate class to map those two columns. Specify that class using @IdClass annotation on the entity class. Add two fields or properties to the entity, each marked as @Id, that correspond to the fields or properties in that separate class.
Answer: CE

10. Which two are true about EJB 3.0 exception classes? (Choose two.)
A. The javax.ejb.NoSuchEJBException is an application exception.
B. The javax.ejb.EJBException extends java.lang.RuntimeException.
C. The javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRequiredException is an application exception.
D. An application exception must NOT be a subclass of java.rmi.RemoteException.
E. The javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRolledbackException is an application exception.
F. Any subclass of java.lang.RuntimeException is always considered a system exception.
Answer: BD

11. A Java EE 5 application contains a session bean which uses a security role USER. A group called people is defined in an LDAP server. Which two define appropriate EJB role responsibilities? (Choose two.)
A. The deployer defines and configures the LDAP realm.
B. The system administrator defines and configures the LDAP realm.
C. The deployer maps the application role USER to the LDAP group people.
D. The system administrator maps the application role USER to the LDAP group people.
Answer: BC

12. Which statement about the combination of mapping defaults, annotations, and XML descriptors is correct?
A. All mapping annotations must always be processed by the persistence provider.
B. Some annotations, like the @Entity annotation, must always be processed by the persistence provider.
C. The mapping information for an entity class specified by annotations and in XML descriptors must be distinct.
D. If multiple entity listeners are defined, the order in which they are invoked can be defined or overwritten in the XML descriptor.
Answer: D

13. A developer wants to create a business interface for both local and remote usage. For performance reasons the remote interface should NOT be called by a client in the same JVM. Which statement is required to accomplish this, assuming there is no deployment descriptor?
A. The business methods are defined in one interface which must be annotated with both @Local and @Remote.
B. The business methods are defined twice in one interface. One method is annotated with @Local and the other is annotated with @Remote.
C. The business methods are defined in a common interface by two other interfaces which are annotated with @Local and @Remote respectively. The bean implements the super interface.
D. The business methods are defined in a common interface. It is extended by two interfaces, annotated with @Local and @Remote respectively. Both interfaces are implemented by the bean class.
Answer: D

14. XYZ Software develops business components using both the EJB 2.1 and EJB 3.0 APIs. Some customers are reluctant to completely migrate to the EJB 3.0 model, but are willing to have EJB 2.1 session beans invoke EJB 3.0 session beans. How should XYZ Software enhance these components to meet this customer requirement?
A. Use @EJB to inject a reference to the EJB 3.0 business interface into the EJB 2.1 bean class.
B. Use <ejb-ref> in ejb-jar.xml for the EJB 2.1 bean to declare a reference to the EJB 3.0 business interface.
C. Add an EJB 3.0-style business interface to EJB 2.1 beans to achieve interoperability between EJB 2.1 and EJB 3.0 beans.
D. Use @RemoteHome and @LocalHome to adapt EJB 3.0 beans so that EJB 2.1 beans can look up the adapted home interfaces using JNDI.
Answer: D

15. Bean Provider has been asked to write a stateless session bean, MyBean with a single method breakout. A System Administrator guarantees that all clients accessing the bean will be identified by mutual SSL authentication. The Bean Provider’s task is to ensure that breakout always logs identity information of the client that invoked it. Which solution would satisfy this requirement?
A. Access the identity information in the X.509 certificate used to authenticate the user from within breakout.
B. Use the getCallerPrincipal method on an injected SessionContext to determine the required information.
C. Use the isCallerInRole method on an injected SessionContext to determine the required information.
D. Ensure that the breakout method is appropriately annotated with @RolesAllowed.
Answer: B

16. A developer writes two session beans which cooperate. The first session bean, ShoppingCart, collects orders and is implemented as a stateful session bean. The second session bean, CalculateDiscount, is implemented as a stateless session bean and runs on a different server. ShoppingCart contains the method getTotalPrice, which calculates the total price of the order in the ShoppingCart, including discounts. Discounts are calculated by CalculateDiscount using the information on the ShoppingCart bean, combined with data from a database. Which scenario can accomplish this?
A. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean passing the this reference.
B. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean. CalculateDiscount accesses the ShoppingCart instance by JNDI lookup.
C. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean passing its reference obtained from the SessionContext.getBusinessObject method.
D. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean. CalculateDiscount accesses the state of ShoppingCart by dependency injection.
Answer: C

17. Your application uses the Java Persistence API to access a database. This application must reject adding an instance to the database if it does NOT pass validation tests for values of two persistence properties. The database contains some data that will NOT pass such validation. Only the new records must be validated. Which option will achieve this behavior?
A. Add validation logic to the setter methods for each property.
B. Add the PrePersist callback method with all of the validation logic.
C. Add the PostPersist callback method with all of the validation logic.
D. Add PrePersist and PreUpdate callback methods with all of the validation logic.
Answer: B

18. A developer maps the abstract entity class Account with concrete entity sub-classes CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount using the single table per class hierarchy strategy. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Instances of CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount are stored in the same table.
B. All columns that correspond to fields declared in Account must be defined as nullable in the database.
C. The fields declared in Account are stored in a different table than the ones declared in CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount.
D. All columns that correspond to fields declared in CreditCardAccount or SavingsAccount must be defined as nullable in the database.
Answer: AD

19. A User entity is in a one-to-many relationship with a Book entity.
A developer writes a query to delete users that have a first name of ‘Fred’ or ‘Ginger’, and writes the following Java Persistence query language statement:
DELETE FROM User u WHERE u.name IN (’Fred’, ‘Ginger’)
If the query fails with a PersistenceException, what can be the cause?
A. The syntax of the query is NOT correct.
B. The query causes a foreign key integrity constraint to be violated.
C. The database does NOT have any users with the name ‘Fred’ or ‘Ginger’.
D. The entities corresponding to the users with the name ‘Fred’ or ‘Ginger’ are already being managed by the persistence context.
Answer: B

20. A developer writes an enterprise application and packages it into an .ear file. The application contains two persistence units defined at the .ear level with persistence unit names FooPU and BarPU. The application also contains an ejb-jar with one stateless session bean. Which code, when added to the stateless session bean class, injects an EntityManagerFactory at runtime?
A. @PersistenceUnit
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
B. @PersistenceContext
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
C. @PersistenceUnit(unitName="BarPU")
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
D. @Resource(name="BarPU", type=EntityManagerFactory.class)
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
Answer: C

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免费BH0-007学习资料

Filed under: ISEB — admin @ 7:01 pm

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Examsoon
BH0-007学习资料

Examsoon
BH0-007题库，不同于Testiinside BH0-007、certtinside BH0-007、Pass4sideBH0-007、TestkingBH0-007、Pass4sureBH0-007的题库资料，是全球IT认证资料供应力量，以高科技的仿真效果，完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题，保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

Examsoon BH0-007 的优势

BH0-007 考试是 ISEB 公司的 ISEB Intermediate Certificate in Software Testing 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的 BH0-007 权威考试题库软件是 ISEB 认证厂商的授权产品，Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 BH0-007考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

ISEB Intermediate Certificate in Software Testing 认证作为全球IT领域专家 ISEB 热门认证之一，是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。如果你正在准备 BH0-007 考试，为 ISEB ISEB Intermediate Certificate in Software Testing认证做最后冲刺，又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟， Examsoon希望能助你成功。

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优点：不需下载安装软件，方便用户打印和携带，但也带来了可随意制的弊端，因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的BH0-007题库，一经发现立即取消其升级资格，且不予退款。
缺点：不具备测试模式，通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

Examsoon
部分最新免费BH0-007认证题库：（您也可以联系我下载部分最新BH0-007考试题库）

　
　
Exam : ISEB BH0-007
Title : ISEB Intermediate Certificate in Software Testing

1. Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of routers on the internet.
In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router:
1) Scans the destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table.
2) Checks the performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an alternative.
Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time.
Packets can take the form of email messages, data files etc.
A serious issue has arisen with emails arriving at the wrong destinations. This is an intermittent problem, and seems to occur only at peak loading times.
Which of the following reviews would you recommend to address this issue?
A. A walkthrough of the requirement specification, to check for errors.
B. A management review of defects logged and cleared to see if defects are being addressed correctly.
C. A technical review of the industry standard routing protocols to see if they have inaccuracies in them.
D. An inspection of the code for this part of the functionality to try to localise the defective parts of the code.
Answer: D

2. Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of routers on the internet.
In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router:
1) Scans the destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table.
2) Checks the performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an alternative.
Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time.
Packets can take the form of email messages, data files etc.
Which of the following would be applicable as part of a test policy for testing these types of systems?
a. Systems must be tested for compliance to industry standard routing protocols.
b. Testing for the latest upgrade will require testing of increased network traffic of 100%.
c. Testing for the fix will require the use of dynamic analysis tools.
d. Releases will not be made if systems have any high priority defects outstanding.
A. a and b.
B. a and d.
C. b and c.
D. b and d.
Answer: B

3. Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of routers on the internet.
In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router:
1) Scans the destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table.
2) Checks the performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an alternative.
Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time.
Packets can take the form of email messages, data files etc.
Which of the following best describes a testing challenge of the application domain of the routers described?
A. Testing that the receivers PC can store emails routed to it.
B. Testing that large organisations can scan incoming files routed to them for viruses.
C. Testing that packets are delivered by the routers in the required timescales.
D. Testing that files can be sent in any language.
Answer: C

4. If the concentration of carbon dioxide in the air rises too high, the air may become toxic.
To address these risks, the requirement specification for this system includes the following requirements:
R1) Oxygen must be replaced as it is consumed.
R2) Carbon dioxide must be removed from the air.
These requirements must be reflected in the functional, technical and program specification documents.
You are a newly recruited test manager.
A risk register has been produced with the following additional risks identified. Which one is a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A. The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to monitor air temperatures.
B. SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C. Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D. Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer: C

5. A computerised system is being created to monitor the life support system on board a submarine. It monitors air quality, water supplies and temperature.
This system will be supplied and maintained by SubsInc. SubsInc uses the V-model for software development and conducts four levels of testing, from unit through to operational and site acceptance testing.
Two key risks identified for the air quality system are:
1. If the percentage of oxygen in the air falls too low, personnel may suffocate
2. If the concentration of carbon dioxide in the air rises too high, the air may become toxic.
To address these risks, the requirement specification for this system includes the following requirements:
R1) Oxygen must be replaced as it is consumed.
R2) Carbon dioxide must be removed from the air.
These requirements must be reflected in the functional, technical and program specification documents.
You are a newly recruited test manager.
A risk register has been produced with the following additional risks identified. Which one is a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A. The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to monitor air temperatures.
B. SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C. Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D. Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer: C

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免费9A0-080学习资料

Filed under: Adobe — admin @ 12:47 pm

最新9A0-080考试题库

Examsoon最新9A0-080认证真题，真题覆盖率达到90%以上。考不过全额退款保障，让您认证无忧。绝对真实来自Examsoon的高质量题库。

购买9A0-080考试题库请认准Examsoon标志！切勿因贪便宜而造成不必要的损失和遗憾。下载题库及任何9A0-080问题请与我站管理员联系！

9A0-080 考试是 Adobe 公司的 Adobe Flash CS3 ACE Exam 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的9A0-080权威考试题库软件是Adobe认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon绝对保证第一次参加 9A0-080 考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

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Examsoon
9A0-080学习资料

Examsoon
9A0-080题库，不同于Testiinside 9A0-080、certtinside 9A0-080、Pass4side9A0-080、Testking9A0-080、Pass4sure9A0-080的题库资料，是全球IT认证资料供应力量，以高科技的仿真效果，完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题，保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

Examsoon 9A0-080 的优势

9A0-080 考试是 Adobe 公司的 Adobe Flash CS3 ACE Exam 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的 9A0-080 权威考试题库软件是 Adobe 认证厂商的授权产品，Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 9A0-080考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

Adobe Flash CS3 ACE Exam 认证作为全球IT领域专家 Adobe 热门认证之一，是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。如果你正在准备 9A0-080 考试，为 Adobe Adobe Flash CS3 ACE Exam认证做最后冲刺，又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟， Examsoon希望能助你成功。

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4、本站9A0-080题库根据9A0-080考试的变化动态更新，在厂家考题每次发生变化后，我们承诺2天内更新9A0-080题库。确保9A0-080考题的覆盖率始终都在95％以上；我们提供2种 9A0-080 考题大师版本供你选择。

5、软件版本9A0-080 考试题库
优点：具有学习模式，测试模式，线上自动升级
缺点：仅限固定电脑使用，不可打印为文本，只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式9A0-080考试题库
优点：不需下载安装软件，方便用户打印和携带，但也带来了可随意制的弊端，因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的9A0-080题库，一经发现立即取消其升级资格，且不予退款。
缺点：不具备测试模式，通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

Examsoon
部分最新免费9A0-080认证题库：（您也可以联系我下载部分最新9A0-080考试题库）

　
　
Exam : Adobe 9A0-080
Title : Adobe Flash CS3 ACE Exam

1. You are about to record a simulation. You want to provide Hint captions automatically by default. Which option should you select?
A.Assessment Simulation
B.Demonstration
C.Training Simulation
D.Custom
Answer: C

2. You have created a text entry box to receive answers from users. You also want users to see their previously entered answer if they return to this slide by using the Back button. What should you do?
A.Add responses to the Correct entries section.
B.Select Retain Text.
C.Select Infinite attempts.
D.Leave the Default text field blank
Answer: B

3. You are publishing your Captivate project to Flash (SWF). Which option, if deselected, may cause your project to NOT display properly in a Web browser?
A.Zip files
B.Export HTML
C.Full screen
D.Send PENS notification
Answer: B

4. Which statement about project titles is NOT true?
A.Spaces in the project title are acceptable.
B.Underscores in the project title are acceptable.
C.Project titles longer than 8 characters are acceptable.
D.Project titles result in the HTML file name.
Answer: A

5. You are publishing your Captivate project as a Word document. You want to provide your questions and an answer key. Which output type should you choose?
A.Handouts
B.Step by Step
C.Lesson
D.Storyboard
Answer: C

6. Your users do NOT have access to the Flash player. Which publish option should you use to ensure your users can view your published project?
A.Adobe Connect
B.Print
C.Flash (SWF)
D.Standalone
Answer: B

7. Click the Exhibit button.
After publishing a Captivate project as a standalone and distributing on CD, you receive reports that the CD does NOT automatically present the Captivate movie after being inserted in a PC.
Based on the exhibit, what are two reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A.eLearning output needs to be enabled.
B.The Full screen option needs to be deselected.
C.The Flash Player Version needs to be changed.
D.The Generate autorun for CD option needs to be selected.
E.The Project Title is too long and needs to be shortened to 8 characters or less.
Answer: DE

8. You want to realistically record the time it takes for a process to complete during the recording process. Which Recording setting should you use?
A.Auto Recording.
B.Record keystrokes.
C.Record actions in real time.
D.Manual Recording.
Answer: C

9. You intend to capture a desktop application. You have been told by the software developer that you may NOT resize the applications window and that you must capture it at its default window size. Youve started the
application.
Which Software Simulation option will ensure you capture just the application window at its current size?
A.Application
B.Custom Size
C.Full Screen
D.Scenario Simulation
Answer: A

10. You want to record an application so the Captivate movie contains the following settings after you record:
- Click Boxes with Failure and Hint Captions
- Text Entry Boxes with Failure and Hint Captions and two attempts
Which recording option should you choose?
A.Demonstration
B.Assessment Simulation
C.Training Simulation
D.Custom
Answer: C

11. You want to create a demo that will be delivered as a single Flash.swf file. Which recording preference produces extra.swf files?
A.record keystrokes
B.hear camera sounds during recording
C.automatically use full motion recording
D.record in demonstration mode
Answer: C

12. You want to publish your project as a SWF so it can be viewed over the Web via a Web browser. You do NOT want your screen captures to be too wide or tall.
Which Software Simulation option will allow you to control the size of the capture area?
A.Application
B.Custom Size
C.Full Screen
D.Scenario Simulation
Answer: B

13. You want to publish your Captivate project as a short reference guide by creating a Microsoft Word document.
Which output type should you choose?
A.Handouts
B.Step by Step
C.Lesson
D.Storyboard
Answer: B

14. You want to add closed captioning text to your slides. What should you do?
A.Choose BMP playbars for the Skin property in the Skin Editor dialog box.
B.Choose Audio > Advanced Audio, click on an audio track, click the Closed Caption button and add a caption.
C.Choose Project > Skin and deselect Show playback control in the Playback Control tab of the Skin Editor dialog box
D.Add closed captioning text to slide notes
Answer: B

15. You will be recording in Assessment mode. Which recording preference option is selected by default?
A.Automatically add click boxes when the mouse is clicked
B.Show mouse location and movement
C.Automatically add text captions
D.Convert tooltips to rollover captions
Answer: A

16. You publish your Captivate project as standalone. Later, you want to change the title bar.What should you do?
A.Choose Edit > Preferences > General and change the Project name field.
B.Choose Project > Skin, select the Info tab and change the Project name field.
C.Edit the properties of the first slide and configure the Label field.
D.Choose File > Publish > Standalone and configure the Project Title field.
Answer: D

17. You will be deploying your Adobe Captivate movie in a Web browser to a broad audience. Users will have a low bandwidth connection and video quality will have to be set to Standard.
Which Windows display setting should you choose to provide the best graphic appearance?
A.set the Windows display color quality to 32-bit
B.use a blank screen saver
C.turn off gradients in Active and Inactive Title bars
D.eliminate icons on desktop
Answer: C

18. You are creating a new Captivate project. You want to use the Cosmos caption type in your project. The Cosmos caption type was available in the drop down list in version 2, but is NOT available version 3.
What should you do?
A.Locate a PC with Captivate 2 still installed, then locate the Cosmos caption files and copy them from the Captivate 2 PC to the Captivate 3 PC.
B.When editing the caption within Captivate, choose the Caption Type drop down, choose and open the More folder.
C.Use a graphics editing application to re-create the look and feel of the Cosmos caption type.
D.Advise those involved in the decision making that this caption type is NO longer included with Captivate 3 and it should no longer be used.
Answer: B

19. You have created a Captivate project and are preparing to add some audio narration to your text captions. You want to ensure that the audio will synchronize with the text captions.What should you do?
A.Choose Audio > Background Audio and record the audio narration.
B.Choose Audio > Record > Project and record the audio narration.
C.Edit the properties for each text caption, choose the Audio tab and record the audio.
D.Choose Audio > Import and import a placeholder audio clip.
Answer: C

20. Captivate may be configured to record specific areas of the screen using the size you specify. Your computer has been configured with a screen resolution of 1280 pixels by 800 pixels.
You will be placing your Captivate output on the Internet. You do NOT know which screen settings your end users may have.
What should you do?
A.change your screen resolution to 640 x 480 pixels and record using the full screen option of Captivate
B.change your screen resolution to 1024 x 768 pixels and record the application at whatever size it currently is displaying
C.configure the application to display at 1024 x 768 pixels and record using this size
D.configure the application to display at 800 x 600 pixels and record using this size
Answer: D

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