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2009年03月31日

免费CS0-003学习资料

Filed under: Curam Software — admin @ 7:18 pm

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免费HP0-236学习资料

Filed under: HP — admin @ 5:52 pm

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Examsoon
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:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新HP0-236考试题库)

 
 
Exam : HP HP0-236
Title : Supporting SAN Infrastructure & Solutions

1. Which environment supports a direct Fibre Channel connection between a storage array and server?
A. NonStop server with XP array
B. NonStop server with EVA array
C. MPIO with EVA array
D. Microsoft Cluster with MSA1000
Answer: A

2. A complex SAN designed for applications with small IOs is used primarily by applications with large IOs. What is the impact to the SAN?
A. The supported hop count is reduced.
B. There may be congestion on inter-switch links.
C. None. SAN design is not dependent on application IO size.
D. The buffer-to-buffer credit on the storage system must be recalculated.
Answer: B

3. How can you activate optional security features on M-series switches?
A. Enable Secure Fabric mode.
B. Use VSANs instead of zones.
C. Enable Enterprise Fabric mode.
D. Use object level zoning.
Answer: C

4. What do you recommend if a performance bottleneck is discovered on a link between a 1 Gbps and a 2 Gbps B-series switch?
A. Implement trunking on this link.
B. Implement port channeling on this link.
C. Use multi-mode cable instead of single mode.
D. Replace the 1 Gbps switch with a 2 Gbps switch.
Answer: D

5. What is the meaning of multipathing in a SAN environment?
A. a general term for trunking and port channeling
B. at least two separate data paths between server and storage
C. a SAN topology where any switch has at least two links to any other switch
D. at least two inter-switch links between switches
Answer: B

6. Which zoning type is supported if B-series switches are connected to third-party switch products?
A. switch/port level
B. AL_PA level
C. mixed
D. WWN level
Answer: D

7. What must you use to establish a communication link between two existing fabrics with different PID bit settings?
A. a router
B. a bridge
C. virtual SANs
D. tunneling
Answer: A

8. What should be the maximum number of active storage controller ports per inter-switch link in a high throughput computing environment?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 10
D. 20
Answer: D

9. What does the HP SAN Security Services Product provide?
A. security services which include the implementation of third party security products
B. security services which include security review, planning and ongoing audit
C. fiber optic components which do not emit electromagnetic radiation
D. product specific installation and maintenance, but no security audit
Answer: B

10. What allows you to check if the configuration of a new switch is compatible with an existing fabric configuration in a B-series fabric?
A. Network View
B. Fabric Manager
C. High Availabiity Fabric Manager
D. OpenView SAN Manager
Answer: B

11. Which security feature in an M-series environment allows only registered servers or storage systems to connect to the fabric?
A. fabric binding
B. switch binding
C. WWN zoning
D. VSAN
Answer: B

12. Which factor can reduce the performance between devices in a Fibre Channel SAN?
A. hop count
B. switch latency
C. inter-switch link latency
D. inter-switch link congestion
Answer: D

13. Which ports should you use on a B-series switch to establish two Wavelength Division Multiplexing links to a remote site?
A. ports which belong to the same "Quad"
B. ports which belong to different "Quads"
C. ports on different switches
D. only 2 Gbps ports
Answer: B

14. What is the most effective way to integrate 2 Gbps switches in existing 1 Gbps switch fabrics with many-to-many access?
A. Use 2 Gbps as core and 1 Gbps as edge switches.
B. Use 1 Gbps as core and 2 Gbps as edge switches.
C. Create separate zones for the 1 Gbps and 2 Gbps switches.
D. Use trunking to link every two 1 Gbps ports to a 2 Gbps connection.
Answer: A

15. A customer requests an inventory and storage resource planning tool in a SAN environment. What is the recommended software?
A. Array Configuration Utility
B. HP OpenView Storage Builder
C. HP OpenView Storage Allocater
D. Storage System Array Controller Software
Answer: B

免费000-905学习资料

Filed under: IBM — admin @ 2:29 am

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购买000-905考试题库请认准Examsoon标志!切勿因贪便宜而造成不必要的损失和遗憾。下载题库及任何000-905问题请与我站管理员联系!

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000-905题库购买时请一定要认准Examsoon标志,世界第一IT认证资料服务提供商中国服务中心。

Examsoon
000-905学习资料

Examsoon
000-905题库,不同于Testiinside 000-905、certtinside 000-905、Pass4side000-905、Testking000-905、Pass4sure000-905的题库资料,是全球IT认证资料供应力量,以高科技的仿真效果,完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题,保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

Examsoon 000-905 的优势

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3.如果你使用 Examsoon模拟测试,我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功,否则,我们将全额退款!

4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前,请检测联接,可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性。

000-905 考试是 IBM 公司的 IBM Tivoli Composite App.Mgr-WebSphere v6.1 Implementation 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的 000-905 权威考试题库软件是 IBM 认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 000-905考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

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5、软件版本000-905 考试题库
优点:具有学习模式,测试模式,线上自动升级
缺点:仅限固定电脑使用,不可打印为文本,只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式000-905考试题库
优点:不需下载安装软件,方便用户打印和携带,但也带来了可随意制的弊端,因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的000-905题库,一经发现立即取消其升级资格,且不予退款。
缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

Examsoon
部分最新免费000-905认证题库
:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新000-905考试题库)

 
 
Exam : IBM 000-905
Title : IBM Tivoli Composite App.Mgr-WebSphere v6.1 Implementation

1. If the Typical (embedded) installation method is used to install ITCAM for WebSphere, what component is installed in the Managing Server environment?
A. Publishing Agent
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal
C. Global Publishing Server
D. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent
Answer: C

2. What is the minimum recommended increase to the heap size for the monitored WebSphere Application Server before installing the Data Collector?
A. 64 MB
B. 128 MB
C. 512 MB
D. 1024 MB
Answer: B

3. After completing an ITCAM for WebSphere Typical (embedded) install, what could be done first to verify a successful installation of WebSphere?
A. create a schedule
B. configure a data collector
C. check for ITCAM process ID
D. log on to the WebSphere Administrative console
Answer: D

4. Which ports should be used when ITCAM for WebSphere Data Collectors are being installed in a network deployment environment?
A. HTTP port of the deployment manager
B. SOAP port of the deployment manager
C. the SOAP port of the local admin server
D. the bootstrap port of the local admin server
Answer: B

5. ITCAM for WebSphere Managing Server is being installed in a stand alone WebSphere Application Server environment. The default SOAP port number 8880 is not valid (or is changed). Which WebSphere configuration files contain the valid port number for the environment?
A. the httpd.conf file or the server.xml file
B. the sysctl.conf file or the pmi-metric.xml file
C. the sysctl.xml file or the environment.xml file
D. the serverindex.xml file or the wsadmin.properties file
Answer: D

6. Which installation program provides only a text-based interactive interface?
A. Data Collector installation on z/Linux
B. Managing Server installation on z/Linux
C. ITCAM for WebSphere TEMA installation on UNIX
D. application support for ITCAM for WebSphere TEMA on Windows
Answer: C

7. Which single DB2 database configuration must be performed prior to a Custom Managing Server installation?
A. enable DB2 SMTP monitoring for alerts
B. A database must be created prior to the Managing Server installation.
C. Run the db2 list application command prior to managing server installation.
D. Run the db2 select * from syscat command prior to managing server installation.
Answer: B

8. When determining the network bandwidth needed for a Data Collector, what is the most dominant factor?
A. number of Web applications
B. number of active transactions
C. number of transactions monitored in L3
D. number of data collectors providing data
Answer: C

9. Which statement is true regarding the database for ITCAM for WebSphere Managing Server?
A. The OCTIGATE database must be used.
B. A Typical (embedded) installation cannot be used when using an Oracle database.
C. For an existing DB2 database, a different instance user ID and Database schema user must be specified.
D. The remote database can only be configured independently from the installation wizard using the db2configuration.sh.
Answer: B

10. The java.security.policy custom property (JVM) parameter configured into WebSphere Application Server for the ITCAM for WebSphere Data Collector points to which policy file?
A. app.policy
B. java.policy
C. server.policy
D. datacollector.policy
Answer: D

11. In order to support a Managing Server on the Windows platform, what must be installed and configured?
A. ssh server
B. LDAP user authentication
C. Microsoft Services for UNIX
D. Active Directory directory services
Answer: C

12. The ITCAM for WebSphere Managing Server is composed of which components?
A. Kernel, Publisher Server, Archive Agent, Message Dispatch, Local Publish Server, Visualization Engine
B. Kernel, Publishing Server, Archive Agent, Polling Agent, Message Dispatcher, Global Publish Server, GUI
C. Kernel, Publish Server, Archive Agent, Message Dispatcher, Global Publish Server, Visualization Engine
D. Kernel, Published Server, Archive Agents, Polling Agent, Message Dispatcher, Global Publish Server, Visualization Engine
Answer: C

13. The Managing Server components require the use of several default server ports. What network command can be issued to check if these ports are in use?
A. ipstat
B. netstat
C. ifconfig
D. ipconfig
Answer: B

14. Identify the two situations below in which the silent install is either the best option or the only choice? (Choose two.)
A. Data Collectors are being installed on many physical servers.
B. When there are some settings that can only be made by using the silent install.
C. When the silent install provides additional logging and can help with problem determination.
D. When the host on which the Data Collector is being installed does not have X Window System available.
E. When a Data Collector install is to be done on x/Linux which does not have a desktop such as Gnome or KDE, though it has X Window System.
Answer: AD

15. Which component of IMS Connect must be installed in the WebSphere Application Server JVM to support composite transactions that invoke IMS?
A. IMS load libraries
B. IMS resource adapter
C. WebSphere MQ for IMS
D. IMS exit program DFSMSCE0
Answer: B

16. Which command will show if any Data Collectors are currently registered with the Managing Server?
A. amctl.sh status
B. klctl.sh status
C. dcctl.sh status
D. am-check.sh status
Answer: B

17. What is one protocol used by the Managing Server to communicate with the Data Collectors?
A. IMS
B. RMI
C. SQL
D. XML
Answer: B

18. What additional step must be taken when installing a Data Collector on a system with multiple IP addresses?
A. No additional configuration is required.
B. Specify the IP address to be used during Data Collector configuration.
C. Specify the IP address to be used during Managing Server installation.
D. Use the Application Monitor interface on the Managing Server to specify the IP address for communication with the Data Collector.
Answer: B

19. Identify the correct statement for a Typical (embedded) installation of the Managing Server?
A. Select a remote machine for the DB2 database.
B. Typical installation only works on Windows platforms.
C. Install with WebSphere and create a local Oracle database.
D. The installation will fail if DB2 is already installed on the machine.
Answer: D

20. Which three configurations generate correlation for composite transaction? (Choose three.)
A. WebSphere accessing DB2 on z/OS
B. CICS transaction invoking IMS DBCTL call
C. WebSphere calling IMS using IMS Connect
D. WebSphere calling Web Services running on another WebSphere
E. CICS transaction using Distributed Program Link (DPL) to another CICS region
F. WebSphere connecting to Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) application using messaging
Answer: CDE

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Exam : Microsoft 70-656
Title : TS: Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack, Configuring

1. Multiple Choice Question
In this type of question, you select the correct answer or answers from a list of answer choices.
Click the Reset button to clear all selected answers. If an Active Exhibit button is present, click it to explore in a simulated environment until you find the information that you need. Then click Close Simulation and answer the question.
Notes
Note the following consideration when answering this type of question:
You might need to use the scroll bar to view the entire contents of the question. You use Advanced Group Policy Management (AGPM) to create and manage Group Policy objects (GPOs). Your user account has the Editor role in AGPM. You need to deploy a new GPO to the production environment immediately upon approval. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create a new controlled GPO.
B. Create a new controlled GPO template.
C. Create a new uncontrolled GPO.
D. Create a Starter GPO.
E. Select the Create live option.
F. Select the Create offline option.
Answer:A AND E

2. Multiple Choice Question
In this type of question, you select the correct answer or answers from a list of answer choices.
Click the Reset button to clear all selected answers. If an Active Exhibit button is present, click it to explore in a simulated environment until you find the information that you need. Then click Close Simulation and answer the question.
Notes
Note the following consideration when answering this type of question:
You might need to use the scroll bar to view the entire contents of the question. Your user account has the Editor role in Advanced Group Policy Management (AGPM). You use a controlled Group Policy object (GPO) to enforce security settings on computers in your company.
You need to make offline modifications on the controlled GPO. What should you do first?
A. Open the Group Policy Object Editor.
B. Create a copy of the GPO by using the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC).
C. Check out the GPO by using the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC).
D. Clear the Enforced option on the GPO.
Answer:C

3. Multiple Choice Question
In this type of question, you select the correct answer or answers from a list of answer choices.
Click the Reset button to clear all selected answers. If an Active Exhibit button is present, click it to explore in a simulated environment until you find the information that you need. Then click Close Simulation and answer the question.
Notes
Note the following consideration when answering this type of question:
You might need to use the scroll bar to view the entire contents of the question. You install Advanced Group Policy Management (AGPM). Your user account has the Editor role in AGPM.
You submit a request to create a new Group Policy object (GPO). The request is approved. You edit the new GPO and check it in. You need to ensure that the new GPO can be deployed into production. What should you do?
A. Request a user whose account has the Reviewer role to deploy the GPO into production.
B. Request a user whose account has the Editor role to deploy the GPO into production.
C. Use the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) to request the deployment of the GPO into production.
D. Request a user whose account has the Approver role to restart the AGPM service.
Answer:C

4. Multiple Choice Question
In this type of question, you select the correct answer or answers from a list of answer choices.
Click the Reset button to clear all selected answers. If an Active Exhibit button is present, click it to explore in a simulated environment until you find the information that you need. Then click Close Simulation and answer the question.
Notes
Note the following consideration when answering this type of question:
You might need to use the scroll bar to view the entire contents of the question. You have a single Active Directory Domain Services forest that consists of a single domain. You install Advanced Group Policy Management (AGPM).
You need to provide a user named Marc with the ability to check out Group Policy objects (GPOs). What should you do?
A. Assign Marcs user account the Editor role.
B. Assign Marcs user account the Reviewer role.
C. Add Marcs user account to the Domain Admins group.
D. Add Marcs user account to the Group Policy Creator Owners group.
Answer:A

5. Multiple Choice Question
In this type of question, you select the correct answer or answers from a list of answer choices.
Click the Reset button to clear all selected answers. If an Active Exhibit button is present, click it to explore in a simulated environment until you find the information that you need. Then click Close Simulation and answer the question.
Notes
Note the following consideration when answering this type of question:
You might need to use the scroll bar to view the entire contents of the question. You are installing Microsoft System Center Desktop Error Monitoring (DEM) for your company. Other IT administrators will connect remotely to the DEM server through Microsoft Internet Security and Acceleration (ISA) Server. You need to specify the correct option to use during setup to prepare DEM to allow remote connections through ISA Server. What should you do?
A. Specify a domain account for the DEM SDK that can be used by remote users to publish the DEM Web console.
B. Specify a local account for the DEM SDK that can be used by ISA Server to publish the DEM Web console.
C. Specify Windows authentication for the Web console.
D. Specify forms authentication for the Web console.
Answer:D

6. Multiple Choice Question
In this type of question, you select the correct answer or answers from a list of answer choices.
Click the Reset button to clear all selected answers. If an Active Exhibit button is present, click it to explore in a simulated environment until you find the information that you need. Then click Close Simulation and answer the question.
Notes
Note the following consideration when answering this type of question:
You might need to use the scroll bar to view the entire contents of the question. Your environment contains client computers that have either Windows Vista or Windows XP Professional installed. You install Microsoft System Center Desktop Error Monitoring (DEM).
You need to configure all client computers to log errors in Microsoft Office 2007 applications to the DEM server. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Upgrade all Windows XP computers to Windows Vista.
B. Deploy the settings in the DEM Group Policy object (GPO).
C. Create a new Event View from the Monitoring node of the DEM console.
D. Use the DEM Group Policy object (GPO) to configure error reporting. E. Use the Add Monitoring Wizard to add a Management Pack.
Answer:B AND D

7. Multiple Choice Question
In this type of question, you select the correct answer or answers from a list of answer choices.
Click the Reset button to clear all selected answers. If an Active Exhibit button is present, click it to explore in a simulated environment until you find the information that you need. Then click Close Simulation and answer the question.
Notes
Note the following consideration when answering this type of question:
You might need to use the scroll bar to view the entire contents of the question. You install Microsoft System Center Desktop Error Monitoring (DEM) on a server named Server1. You need to configure Server1 to automatically receive support information from Microsoft. What should you do?
A. Use the Group Policy Object Editor to disable Windows error reporting.
B. Modify the Customer Experience Improvement Project (CEIP) Group Policy settings.
C. Use the Client Monitoring Configuration Wizard to forward all collected errors to Microsoft.
D. Use the Client Monitoring Configuration Wizard to collect application errors from client computers.
Answer:C

8. Multiple Choice Question
In this type of question, you select the correct answer or answers from a list of answer choices.
Click the Reset button to clear all selected answers. If an Active Exhibit button is present, click it to explore in a simulated environment until you find the information that you need. Then click Close Simulation and answer the question.
Notes
Note the following consideration when answering this type of question:
You might need to use the scroll bar to view the entire contents of the question. You have a Windows Server 2003 Active Directory Domain Services environment. You install Microsoft System Center Desktop Error Monitoring (DEM) on a server named Server1. You need to be able to configure the Customer Experience Improvement Program (CEIP) subscription settings for all client computers. What should you do first?
A. Copy the System Center Operations Manager (SCOM) administrative template from Server1. Import the template into your Group Policy Management Console (GPMC).
B. Log on to Server1 and modify the CEIP Group Policy object (GPO).
C. Use the System Center Operations Manager (SCOM) console for DEM to modify the Management Pack templates.
D. Use the System Center Operations Manager (SCOM) console for DEM to import the Management Pack templates.
Answer:A

9. Multiple Choice Question In this type of question, you select the correct answer or answers from a list of answer choices. Click the Reset button to clear all selected answers. If an Active Exhibit button is present, click it to explore in a simulated environment until you find the information that you need. Then click Close Simulation and answer the question. Notes Note the following consideration when answering this type of question:
You might need to use the scroll bar to view the entire contents of the question. Your environment contains the servers shown in the following table.
You are installing Advanced Group Policy Management (AGPM) Client. You need to configure an AGPM server connection. Which server should you configure as the server connection?
A. nyc-dc1.contoso.com
B. nyc-srv1.contoso.com
C. nyc-dc2.contoso.com
D. nyc-dc3.contoso.com
Answer:B

10. Multiple Choice Question
In this type of question, you select the correct answer or answers from a list of answer choices.
Click the Reset button to clear all selected answers. If an Active Exhibit button is present, click it to explore in a simulated environment until you find the information that you need. Then click Close Simulation and answer the question.
Notes
Note the following consideration when answering this type of question:
You might need to use the scroll bar to view the entire contents of the question. In your environment, each client computer has one of the following operating systems installed:
Windows XP Professional with Service Pack 2
Windows Vista Enterprise
You install Microsoft System Center Desktop Error Monitoring (DEM).
You need to be able to monitor errors that are logged by all client computers. What should you do?
A. Modify the View Scope for all client computers by using the DEM console.
B. Enable error notification for all client computers by using a Group Policy object (GPO).
C. Install Service Pack 3 on all Windows XP computers.
D. Upgrade all Windows XP computers to Windows Vista Enterprise.
Answer:B

11. Multiple Choice Question
In this type of question, you select the correct answer or answers from a list of answer choices.
Click the Reset button to clear all selected answers. If an Active Exhibit button is present, click it to explore in a simulated environment until you find the information that you need. Then click Close Simulation and answer the question.
Notes
Note the following consideration when answering this type of question:
You might need to use the scroll bar to view the entire contents of the question. You install and configure Advanced Group Policy Management (AGPM). You need to be able to create and configure a new controlled Group Policy object (GPO). What should you do?
A. Use the Group Policy Objects node to create a new GPO.
B. Use the Change Control node to create a new GPO.
C. Navigate to the organizational unit (OU) to which you want to apply the new GPO. Create and link the new GPO.
D. Log on to the computer that has the AGPM server installed. Create the GPO by using Active Directory Users and Computers.
Answer:B

12. Multiple Choice Question In this type of question, you select the correct answer or answers from a list of answer choices. Click the Reset button to clear all selected answers. If an Active Exhibit button is present, click it to explore in a simulated environment until you find the information that you need. Then click Close Simulation and answer the question. Notes.Note the following consideration when answering this type of question:
You might need to use the scroll bar to view the entire contents of the question. You have a single Active Directory Domain Services forest that consists of a dedicated forest root domain and a child domain. All accounts for users and for member computers reside in the child domain. Advanced Group Policy Management (AGPM) will be used for Group Policy objects (GPOs) that are linked to organizational units (OUs) that contain users and member computers. You are attempting to install AGPM. You receive an error message that indicates that you do not have the necessary permissions to install AGPM. You need to use an account that will allow you to successfully install AGPM. In which group must the account be a member?
A. the Domain Admins group in the forest root domain
B. the Domain Admins group in the child domain
C. the Group Policy Creator Owners group in the forest root domain
D. the Group Policy Creator Owners group in the child domain
Answer:B

13. Multiple Choice Question
In this type of question, you select the correct answer or answers from a list of answer choices.
Click the Reset button to clear all selected answers. If an Active Exhibit button is present, click it to explore in a simulated environment until you find the information that you need. Then click Close Simulation and answer the question.
Notes
Note the following consideration when answering this type of question:
You might need to use the scroll bar to view the entire contents of the question. You edit a controlled Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. You select the Deploy option from the console. However, GPO1 is flagged as Pending Deploy. You need to request a role that will allow you to deploy GPO1 into production. What are two possible roles that will achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Full Control (Administrator)
B. Editor
C. Reviewer
D. Approver
Answer:A AND D

14. Multiple Choice Question
In this type of question, you select the correct answer or answers from a list of answer choices.
Click the Reset button to clear all selected answers. If an Active Exhibit button is present, click it to explore in a simulated environment until you find the information that you need. Then click Close Simulation and answer the question.
Notes
Note the following consideration when answering this type of question:
You might need to use the scroll bar to view the entire contents of the question. You manage all client computers in the London organizational unit (OU).
You install Microsoft System Center Desktop Error Monitoring (DEM).
You need to deploy client monitoring to all client computers in the London OU. What should you do?
A. Run the Agent Discovery Wizard and configure automatic computer discovery.
B. Run the Agent Discovery Wizard with a filter for only computer objects.
C. Import the DEM template to the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC). Create and configure a Group Policy object (GPO) that is linked to the London OU.
D. Import the DEM template to the DEM console. Install and configure a new Management Pack for client computers in the London OU.
Answer:C

15. You use Advanced Group Policy Management (AGPM) to deploy changes to client computers. A consultant will use AGPM to audit policy changes made to computers in the finance department organizational unit (OU). You create a user account for the consultant. You need to provide the consultant with read-only access to Group Policy objects (GPOs) through AGPM.
What should you do?
A. Configure the consultants user account to have read access to the finance department OU.
B. Configure the consultants user account to have read access to the Policies folder within the SYSVOL share.
C. Configure the consultants user account as an AGPM Reviewer.
D. Configure the consultants user account as an AGPM Approver. E. Configure the consultants user account as an AGPM Editor.
Answer:C

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Exam : IBM 000-714
Title : IBM U2 UniVerse V10.1 for UNIX and Windows Administration

1. Which VOC items cannot be protected using a remote security routine (field 4) VOC item?
A. file pointers
B. sentences and paragraphs
C. verbs and catalog pointers
D. paragraph and proverb entries
Answer: A

2. Which account flavor combines features of PICK and INFORMATION UniVerse flavors?
A. IN2
B. INFO
C. IDEAL
D. REALITY
Answer: C

3. Which command will change the flavor of a UniVerse account?
A. UPDATE.ACCOUNT [flavor]
B. MODIFY.ACCOUNT [flavor]
C. CREATE.ACCOUNT [flavor]
D. CHANGE.ACCOUNT TO [flavor]
Answer: A

4. Which option located in ‘uv/bin’ (UNIX) or ‘uvbin’ (WINDOWS) is used to clean up UniVerse licenses?
A. uvadmsh
B. uvsetacc
C. uvlictool
D. uvlicregen
Answer: C

5. On a UNIX system, access to files in any UniVerse account relies primarily on
A. standard UNIX file security
B. settings in the /etc/passwd file
C. settings in the UNIX ’shadow’ file
D. UniVerse Admin security setup
Answer: A

6. Which command is used to prevent users from breaking out of a program?
A. BREAK.KEY OFF
B. BREAK DISABLE
C. PTERM BREAK ON
D. PTERM BREAK OFF
Answer: D

7. The existence of which file in the UniVerse account determines whether BASIC object code will be loaded into shared memory?
A. SHM.TO.LOAD
B. load_shm_cat
C. GLOBAL.CATDIR
D. GLOBAL.CATALOG
Answer: A

8. Device licensing allows multiple client connections to the UV server for which edition of UniVerse?
A. PC Edition
B. Enterprise Edition
C. UniObjects Edition
D. UV Administration Edition
Answer: B

9. To secure specific verbs, paragraphs, and/or sentences in a VOC, administrators can utilize a UniVerse security routine located in which field of a remote VOC item?
A. Field 2
B. Field 3
C. Field 4
D. Field 5
Answer: C

10. In a UniVerse account, which command will display ONLY file pointers to files located in the same directory the account resides?
A. LISTF
B. LISTLF
C. LISTFL
D. LISTF LOCAL
Answer: C

11. Administrators use the LIST.DIFF command to list differences between
A. two saved lists
B. two definitions in the &DEVICE& file
C. BASIC object code and cataloged object code
D. a previous copy of UniVerse data file and its current contents
Answer: A

12. Catalog Shared Memory is used to minimize memory required for
A. each UniVerse user log-on.
B. sharing of multiple printer segments.
C. simultaneous disk access of user files.
D. multiple users that execute the same UniVerse program.
Answer: D

13. System administrators may wish to modify the options displayed when the ‘interrupt key’ is used. Which statement below facilitates the change?
A. Use ON.ABORT VOC item to disable the BREAK.KEY
B. Change the ON.BREAK VOC item to trap and proceed
C. Change the INTR.KEY item in the VOC to your preference
D. Use the BREAK command to edit which options to display
Answer: C

14. The ’sh mem’ option of the UV System Admin menu allows administrators to
A. add memory to the system
B. load compiled BASIC programs into memory
C. release BASIC record locks held in memory
D. define addressable memory limits for BASIC programs
Answer: B

15. Which method allows the configuration of a printer for UniVerse on Windows?
A. edit &DEVICE& LP1
B. SP.ASSIGN (options)
C. Start > Settings > Printers
D. Start > Settings > Control Panel > Devices
Answer: C

16. Why are printer definitions stored in the &DEVICE& file?
A. To specify the operating system printer.
B. To allow the ASSIGN statement to be used.
C. To control locked files used in printing.
D. To provide an interface to the sp.config file.
Answer: B

17. To assign ‘uvbackup’ privileges to users, administrators must make an entry in which UV account file?
A. UV.ACCESS
B. UV.BACKUP
C. UV.ACCOUNT
D. UV.BACKUP.ACCESS
Answer: A

18. To limit a user’s ability to create UniVerse accounts on a system, administrators must make an entry in which file in the UV account?
A. NEWACC
B. UV.ACCESS
C. UV.FLAVOR
D. UV.ACCOUNT
Answer: C

19. When users login to an IDEAL flavor account, which method controls the first action taken by UniVerse?
A. the VOC entry ‘LOGIN’
B. VOC entry equal to the user name
C. VOC entry equal to the account name
D. hierarchy using user name, account name, ‘LOGIN’ entry (if one exists)
Answer: A

20. How would an administrator make ‘LONGNAMES ON’ the default for new accounts created on an existing installation?
A. Execute the ‘LONGNAMES ON’ in each new account
B. In the UV account execute ‘LONGNAMES ON NEWACC’
C. Manually set verb ‘CREATE.FILE’ to ‘LONGNAMES ON’ in NEWACC
D. Set ‘LONGNAMES ON’ in uvconfig file, then stop UV, then start UV
Answer: B

2009年03月30日

最新NS0-163认证考试题库下载

Filed under: Network Appliance — admin @ 11:36 pm

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Exam : Network Appliance NS0-163
Title : Network Appliance Data Protection Solutions

1. Which two choices are used to configure a semi-synchronous SnapMirror relationship? (Choose two.)
A. throttle
B. visibility interval
C. outstanding=3s in DOT 7.2
D. using option semi-sync in DOT 7.3 and higher
Answer: CD

2. The SnapVault secondary system allows you to keep a separate schedule of Snapshot copies from your primary system.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

3. Which option will allow a storage system to SnapMirror from this source system?
A. snapmirror.access <destination_filer>
B. snapmirror.destination <destination_filer>
C. options snapmirror.allow host = <destination_filer>
D. options snapmirror.access host = <destination_filer>
Answer: D

4. Which statement applies to the Open Systems SnapVault Free Space Estimator utility?
A. This utility run automatically after each transfer.
B. This utility must be enabled on the secondary storage system.
C. This utility determines if there is sufficient disk space available on the primary to perform an OSSV transfer.
D. This utility determines if there is sufficient disk space available on the secondary to perform an OSSV transfer.
Answer: C

5. Which command or procedure would you use to undo a volume SnapRestore operation?
A. snap restore -r <vol/snapshotname> vol <path_and_vol_name>
B. snap revert -s <vol/snapshotname> vol <path_and_vol_name>
C. snap restore undo vol <path_and_vol_name>
D. You cannot undo a SnapRestore operation at the volume level.
Answer: D

6. Assume fabric-attached MetroCluster using hardware disk ownership. If the local node has its FC HBA connected to switch bank 1, it owns the disks connected to switch bank ___.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

7. A NearStore license increases the amount of concurrent replication streams.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

8. The snapvault snap sched -x command is used to ____________.
A. schedule full backups
B. cancel scheduled backups
C. schedule baseline transfer
D. schedule incremental backups
Answer: D

9. Which OSSV tool would you use to perform an OSSV unattended installation?
A. msipackage
B. svunattendossv
C. svconfigpackager
D. unattendpackager
Answer: C

10. A snapshot is a frozen, read-only image of the entire Data ONTAP active file system that reflects the state of the ____________ at the time the snapshot was created.
A. qtrees
B. volume
C. directory
D. storage system
Answer: B

11. Which is true of the SnapVault backup of NetApp storage system?
A. The file is the basic unit for SnapVault backup destination.
B. The qtree is the basic unit for SnapVault backup destination.
C. The volume is the basic unit of SnapVault backup destination.
D. The directory is the basic unit for SnapVault backup destination.
Answer: B

12. The ONTAP SnapVault primary license on the target storage system is required for Open System SnapVault.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

13. Which three /etc/snapmirror.conf entries will support synchronous or semi-synchronous SnapMirror? (Choose three.)
A. FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol – sync
B. FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol – 0-55/5 * * *
C. FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol outstanding=3s sync
D. FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol visibility_interval=1hr, outstanding=3ms, cksum=crc32 sync
Answer: ACD

14. Which command creates a new SyncMirror aggregate, letting Data ONTAP select the disk drives?
A. aggr create aggrX -d 12
B. aggr create aggrX -m 12
C. aggr mirror aggrX -m 12
D. aggr mirror aggrX -n 12
Answer: B

15. Which Data ONTAP option sets system-wide throttling for all transfers?
A. options transfer.wide.enable
B. options transfer.throttle.enable
C. options replication.wide.enable
D. options replication.throttle.enable
Answer: D

16. Before enabling an active/active configuration, you should verify and compare the configuration of the nodes. Which tool can perform this task?
A. cf-config-check.cgi script
B. cf status command on both nodes
C. clustercheck script
D. Release Comparison Tool
Answer: A

17. Which action will cause a currently in-sync SnapMirror relationship to fall out of sync?
A. Running snapmirror update on the source storage system
B. Running snapmirror release on the source storage system
C. Modifying the /etc/snapmirror.conf file for the relationship on the source storage system
D. Modifying the /etc/snapmirror.conf file for the relationship on the destination storage system
Answer: D

18. Data ONTAP uses inodes in an active file system to reference ___________.
A. qtrees
B. disk blocks
C. file segments
D. Snapshot copies
Answer: B

19. Which system is recommended as a secondary system for SnapVault?
A. IS1200
B. DataFort
C. NearStore VTL
D. FAS with NearStore license
Answer: D

20. What is the correct format for the scheduling component of a SnapVault schedule?
A. YYYY-MM-DD
B. crontab format
C. cnt[@day_list][@hour_list]
D. List of dates in ISO Date format
Answer: C

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免费1Y0-223学习资料

Filed under: Citrix — admin @ 10:10 pm

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Exam : Network General Corp
1Y0-223
Title : Citrix MetaFrame Presentarion Server 3.0:Enterprise Edition Administration

1. How does the Zone Preference and Failover policy rule benefit a farm?
A. It helps to increase security in a farm.
B. It routes users to specific groups of servers in the same zone.
C. It routes users to specific zones and reduces traffic across high latency connections.
D. It prevents users from being disconnected from servers that are experiencing a heavy load.
Answer: C

2. An administrator, Admin3, is taking an extended leave of absence. The IT manager wants to ensure that the Admin3 account is not used to administer the farm during the absence. The IT manager also does not want to delete the configured MetaFrame administrator account settings for Admin3. How can this be accomplished?
A. MetaFrame administrator accounts cannot be disabled. The account must be deleted and recreated when Admin3 returns.
B. In the MetaFrame administrators node, under the properties of the Admin3 account, select "Disable MetaFrame administrator account."
C. Under Farm Properties in the Administrator section, highlight the Admin3 account and select "Disable MetaFrame administrator account."
D. In the Applications node, right-click on administrators, choose the Admin3 account and select "Disable MetaFrame administrator account."
Answer: B

3. Product Reports and Summary Reports can be generated in the License Management Console. However, an administrator must first select _____. (Fill in the blank with the correct option.)
A. a Usage Log
B. a Chart Setting
C. the Debug Log
D. the Options File
Answer: A

4. Identify two primary technical considerations for deciding to install more than one farm in a MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 environment. (Choose two.)
A. The condition of network hardware
B. The type of database chosen for the data store
C. The geographic location of the server components
D. The type of network connection between the components
Answer: CD

5. Which option provides secure remote access to the License Management Console (LMC)?
A. Placement of the LMC on a server in the DMZ/firewall
B. Dual password authentication for the administrator to log in to the LMC
C. Use of a secure http connection to access the LMC from a web browser
D. Addition of the URL of the LMC to the list of trusted sites in Internet Explorer
Answer: C

6. What are the three categories of MetaFrame administrator account privilege levels? (Choose three.)
A. Full
B. Special
C. Custom
D. View only
E. Temporary
Answer: ACD

7. Identify the type of Microsoft SQL Server database replication that is supported by MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0.
A. Merge
B. Snapshot
C. Transactional with queued updating of subscribers
D. Transactional with immediate updating subscribers
Answer: D

8. Which two management components of MetaFrame Presentation Server can be used to manage two farms concurrently? (Choose two.)
A. Network Manager
B. Resource Manager
C. Access Suite Console
D. License Management Console
Answer: CD

9. Identify the protocol that the Citrix License Server uses to communicate with a server running MetaFrame Presentation Server.
A. IMA
B. XML
C. TCP/IP
D. NetBIOS
Answer: C

10. Why does Citrix recommend that administrators perform the initial migration of a MetaFrame 1.8 server farm to MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0 outside of a company’s normal working hours?
A. The license installation process interrupts server communication.
B. All servers running MetaFrame 1.8 have to be taken offline during the migration process.
C. All MetaFrame 1.8 servers need to be upgraded to MetaFrame Presentation Server at the same time.
D. The browser election process causes published applications and server browsing to be temporarily unavailable.
Answer: D

11. The _____ is the server responsible for maintaining dynamic data for all zone servers; the _____ contains persistent data for all servers in the farm; and the _____ is a subset of information that is retained locally on each server. (Fill in the blanks with the correct series of options.)
A. data store database; data collector; IMA
B. data collector; IMA; local host cache
C. data collector; data store database; local host cache
D. server running MetaFrame Presentation Server; data collector; data store database
Answer: C

12. Explain the difference between the Presentation Server Console and the Access Suite Console by choosing the correct statement.
A. The Presentation Server Console is an administrator’s tool while the Access Suite Console is a user’s tool.
B. The Presentation Server Console allows an administrator to manage only one server in the farm independently, while the Access Suite Console allows administrators to manage all of the servers in the farm.
C. The Presentation Server Console allows an administrator to manage the farm while the Access Suite Console allows an administrator to manage only components in the MetaFrame Access Suite and not MetaFrame Presentation Server.
D. The Presentation Server Console allows an administrator to manage the farm while the Access Suite Console allows an administrator to manage certain aspects of MetaFrame Presentation Server, as well as other MetaFrame Access Suite components.
Answer: D

13. In a farm, Zone Preference and Failover is configured for users. However, users are always directed to the least loaded server in the farm regardless of the user’s configured preference. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The user is launching applications through Web Interface.
B. The user is launching applications through Program Neighborhood.
C. The user is launching applications through Web Interface and using SSL.
D. The user is launching applications through Program Neighborhood Agent.
Answer: B

14. Identify a benefit of disabling load sharing across zones.
A. Increases security
B. Decreases network traffic
C. Improves zone scalability
D. Gives users of Program Neighborhood Classic zone-based customizations
Answer: B

15. The resource, _____, allows an administrator to allocate license files to a deployment, view purchased and allocated licenses, and obtain replacement license files. (Fill in the blank with the correct option.)
A. Document Center
B. www.MyCitrix.com
C. Citrix License Server
D. Access Suite Console
Answer: B

16. In order for users to access published applications when using Program Neighborhood Agent, which component of MetaFrame Presentation Server must be installed?
A. Web Interface
B. Secure Gateway
C. Program Neighborhood
D. Installation Manager
Answer: A

17. An administrator has just added a new server to a zone. The administrator would like this server to be the data collector for its zone. How can the election preference level for this server be set in order for it to become the zone data collector?
A. In the Presentation Server Console, select Zones in the left pane of a farm’s Properties page, then set the preference for that server.
B. In the Presentation Server Console, navigate to the Server node, right-click the new server and select "Promote to data collector."
C. In the Presentation Server Console, highlight the Server node and select the Zones tab. Move the desired server to the top of the list.
D. The data collector for each zone is the first server added to that zone; once a zone is created the assigned data collector cannot be changed.
Answer: A

18. Which command can be used to display data about all ICA browsers and IMA servers in a farm that are running in interoperability mode?
A. Query farm ( QFARM )
B. Query mixed ( QMIXED )
C. Query server ( QSERVER )
D. Query interop ( QINTEROP )
E. Query browser ( QBROWSE )
Answer: C

19. When deciding which kind of database to use as a farm data store, an administrator must consider which three factors? (Choose three.)
A. Number of zones in the farm
B. Number of servers in the farm
C. Number of applications in the farm
D. Number of named users in the farm
E. Number of connection licenses in the farm
Answer: BCD

20. For which purpose does an administrator need to use the Presentation Server Console to manage MetaFrame licensing?
A. To view how many licenses are available
B. To request a license file from www.MyCitrix.com
C. To launch the License Management Console remotely
D. To configure a server to communicate with the license server
Answer: D

最新1k0-001认证考试题库下载

Filed under: Polycom — admin @ 9:41 pm

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Exam : Polycom 1K0-001
Title : Polycom Cve Core Exam

1. G.722 Audio over IP using the H.323 Standard must be transmitted as packets that are_____________
A. unframed at random intervals.
B. framed using 802.3 and are sent at random intervals.
C. framed using 802.3 and are sent at 140 millisecond intervals.
D. framed using 802.3 and are sent at 10 millisecond intervals.
E. framed using 802.3 and are sent at 60 millisecond intervals.
Answer: E

2. A popular way to select a Gateway is by using a
A. Gateway SPID values registered on a Gatekeeper for ISDN to IP.
B. Gateway Prefix values registered on a Gatekeeper for IP to ISDN.
C. Direct In Dial Numbers of ISDN to IP with or without a Gatekeeper.
D. Set of numbers that point to the TEI of the D-Channel.
E. A and B
F. B and C
G. C and D
Answer: F

3. What term is used for video display resolution of H.264 Video Coding used for Visual Telephony?
A. Standard Intermediate Format
B. Standard Systems Committee
C. Standard Optics
D. Standardized Network Management Parameters
Answer: A

4. The Bandwidth on Demand Interoperability Group created four modes for standardized Inverse Multiplexing. Which mode is best compatible with H.320/221 Video Conferencing?
A. Mode 1
B. Mode 2
C. Mode 3
D. Mode 4
Answer: A

5. Which of the following video display resolutions are true 16:9 Aspect Ratio?
A. 1920X1080
B. 1024X768
C. 1280X720
D. 720X480
Answer: AC

6. Which two types of Networks are capable of providing consistent, guaranteed QoS Constant Bit Rate Transport with a steady reliable clock source?
A. ISDN D-Channel
B. ISDN Circuit Switched Voice
C. ISDN Circuit Switched Data
D. X.25 / X.75 Packet Switching
E. ATM CBR-AAL0 Service
F. Public Virtual Private Network
Answer: CE

7. What effect will an oscillating fan that is visible in the background have on the overall video quality?
A. No effect
B. Shadows
C. Video switching
D. Lower frame rate
Answer: D

8. H.323 Videoconferencing connections over the IP Packet Network to allow Video, Audio, Content to transport are called what?
A. UTP Streams
B. LAN Streams
C. RTP Streams
D. TCP Streams
E. HTTP Streams
Answer: C

9. What allows the detection of audio distortion?
A. Audible sound quality
B. Measured audio signal level
C. Measured background noise level
D. Digital signal processor clock level
Answer: AB

10. True or False?
H.323 / H.225 / H.245 ITU-T Standards describe that Audio and Video are always multiplexed together in the same packets for In-Bound and
Out-bound.
A. True
B. false
Answer: B

11. Which of the following refers to Line coding used with the 2-wire, U reference of a Basic Rate Interface?
A. BRTZ-AMI
B. HDB3
C. 2B1Q
Answer: C

12. Gatekeeper messages for registration and admission that are successful will always have the Generic structure as:
(Note – "XX" – is a variable value that represents specific Gatekeeper names)
A. RequestXX, ReplyXX
B. RequestXX, DenyXXC
C. XXRequest, XXReply
D. XXRequest, XXConfirm
E. XXRequest, XXAcnowledged
Answer: D

13. Encryption security of Video and Audio will be used to make
A. only the packet headers unreadable
B. only the first packet header unreadable
C. only the packet payload unreadable
D. None of the above
Answer: C

14. Which of the following describe video dynamics as processed through a videoconference system?
A. Cameras react to light the same as ones eye and video monitors accurately render the video information so what one sees by eye is what the far-end sees.
B. Cameras have limits to the range of light levels which can be accommodated and tend to process the darker regions further toward black than what ones eye sees.
C. Codecs have the same limits as cameras and therefore will not change the perceived qualities of the video as rendered by the cameras.
D. Codecs have more restrictive limits than cameras, and the best way to accurately assess the video quality sent to the far-end is to view a video scene fully coded and then decoded.
Answer: BD

15. H.323 Media Gateways require H.323 Terminals, which wish to make calls through the Gateway to ISDN sites, to
A. perform a test with the other H.323 Terminals first.
B. be registered with the MCU first.
C. be registered with the Gatekeeper first.
D. call the Network administrator first.
E. be using a Gateway Prefix registered on an Active Gatekeeper.
F. be using a Gatekeeper Prefix defined on the End Point.
Answer: E

16. H.241 is best described as a standard that unifies
A. Audio Coding for H.300 Series.
B. Framing for H.300 Series.
C. Video Conference Coding for H.300 Series.
D. all Operations for H.300 Series.
E. Video Procedures and Control Signals for H.300 Series.
Answer: E

17. Quarter Common Intermediate Format has
A. twice the resolution of CIF.
B. half the number of lines of 4CIF.
C. four times more resolution than CIF.
D. None of the above
Answer: D

18. S-Video Connections are typically designed with what type of connectors?
A. 4-Pin Mini-DIN
B. RCA
C. Banana plug
D. Jones strip
E. Phoenix
Answer: A

19. To setup a Videoconferencing system to be capable of ISDN speeds up to 512 kilobits per second, which of the following is required? (Select three of the following options.)
A. 3 TE-2
B. 4 NT-1
C. 4 TE-2
D. 1 IMUX with 3 BRI line support
E. 1 IMUX with 4 BRI line support
F. 3 BRI lines
G. 3 NT-1
H. 6 BRI lines
I. 4 BRI lines
Answer: BEI

20. E1 framing has a bit structure of how many bits per frame?
Clue Full metallic E1 speed divided by 8KHz Stratum timing.
A. 200
B. 240
C. 256
D. 300
Answer: C

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最新2B0-100认证考试题库下载

Filed under: Enterasys Networks — admin @ 8:43 pm

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-100
Title : Enterasys Systems Engineer (ESE) Recertification

1. Which router supports OSPF redistribution of the following protocols; BGP, OSPF, OSPF-ASE, IS-IS, and Aggregate.
A.Matrix X
B.Matrix DFE
C.Matrix E1
D.SecureStack C2
Answer: A

2. The ability to assign VLAN traffic to unique paths is a benefit of:
A.802.1w Rapid Reconfiguration
B.802.1t Spanning Tree Maintenance
C.802.1s Multiple Spanning Tree
D.Enterasys proprietary Passive Spanning Tree
Answer: C

3. In the Planning Tool, what is the procedure to move a DAP?
A.Just click on the DAP, then drag and drop it to a new location.
B.Close the planning tool, release the DAP lock and then reinsert it.
C.Right click on the DAP and select the properties tab, then enter the new coordinates in the topography screen.
D.You can not move the DAP, you must delete it and then re-add it, making sure to specify the DAP location before you hit the "calculate and place DAPs" button.
Answer: A

4. How can you differentiate between the Gold and Platinum DFE modules?
A.The Platinum part numbers begin with 4 while the Gold begins with 7.
B.The only way to tell is by the color of the tab.
C.The Platinum part numbers begin with 6 and the Gold begins with 4.
D.The Platinum part number begins with 7 and the Gold begins with 4.
Answer: D

5. A FlexView table can be exported in which format?
A.Bar graph
B.Pie chart
C.gif
D.HTML
Answer: D

6. What is the function of dip switch 8 in a DFE module?
A.Resets the admin password to default
B.Forced BootP
C.Clears persistent data
D.None of the above
Answer: A

7. What restriction, if any, is placed on aggregating ports on the Matrix E1?
A.Only fixed ports may be aggregated.
B.Ports in a trunk must all be attached to the same internal chip set.
C.Only three ports can be aggregated at a time.
D.There are no restrictions.
Answer: B

8. Firmware upgrade of a stack of SecureStack C2 switches involves downloading the image to the management IP address of a stack, and the image is automatically distributed to all the switches in the stack.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

9. Which of the following is/are true about Enterasys support for 802.1D spanning tree?
A.All Enterasys switches support the basic IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree.
B.Only the Enterasys SS2000 and Matrix E5/E6/E7 support IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree.
C.RSTP is the default spanning tree on those devices that also support other spanning tree methods.
D.Both A and C
E.None of the above
Answer: D

10. What is a Mobility Domain?
A.A logical grouping of Wireless Switches that form a seamless roaming region.
B.A specific group of radios within a single WLAN configured to limit user movement to a specific area.
C.The fringe zone between radio coverage areas where a WLAN user roams from one radio to another.
D.A geographical zone of the WLAN where a set of policy ACLs is enforced.
Answer: A

11. What is the interval that DVMRP routers send Route Report packets to adjacent DVMRP routers?
A.30 seconds.
B.60 seconds.
C.120 seconds.
D.None of the above
Answer: B

12. Trap Support is available for Span Guard.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

13. What is the default VLAN on all Enterasys switches?
A.10
B.4095
C.0
D.1
Answer: D

14. What protocol is available to make device management through Telnet encrypted?
A.MD5 authentication
B.Secure Shell
C.Secure Socket Layer
D.Access Control List
Answer: B

15. Which Routing devices require an advance routing license in order to use OSPF?
A.Matrix N Platinum & SecureStack C2
B.Matrix X & Matrix E1
C.SecureStack C2 & Matrix X
D.Matrix E1 & SecureStack C2
Answer: A

16. With an Advanced Distributed Architecture every switch module is its own switch, and thus a central or management-switching module is not required.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

17. NetSight Console can both discover and manage 3rd party switches.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

18. What is the maximum number of Matrix C2 modules that can be configured in a stack?
A.2
B.4
C.6
D.8
Answer: D

19. What must you configure on a device before it can be managed with NetSight Console?
A.MAC address
B.Passwords
C.802.1X authentication parameters
D.IP address
Answer: D

20. The RADIUS Filter-ID parameter is used to:
A.Authenticate users.
B.Authenticate a RADIUS client.
C.Pass policy role information to the Network Access Server (NAS).
D.Discard traffic destined for a RADIUS server.
Answer: C

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2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权,我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。

3.如果你使用 Examsoon模拟测试,我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功,否则,我们将全额退款!

4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前,请检测联接,可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性。

2B0-100 考试是 Enterasys Networks 公司的 Enterasys Systems Engineer (ESE) Recertification 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的 2B0-100 权威考试题库软件是 Enterasys Networks 认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 2B0-100考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

Enterasys Systems Engineer (ESE) Recertification 认证作为全球IT领域专家 Enterasys Networks 热门认证之一,是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。 如果你正在准备 2B0-100 考试,为 Enterasys Networks Enterasys Systems Engineer (ESE) Recertification认证做最后冲刺,又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟, Examsoon希望能助你成功。

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Exam : SUN 310-876
Title : Level 2 System Support Engineer Examination

1. How does Solstice DiskSuite assemble large volumes from multiple disk drives?
A. Disks are formatted into two slices and utilizes contiguous sectors.
B. It forces the use of all available partitions and stripes across them.
C. It creates and joins virtual volumes that are larger than one physical disk.
D. It uses standard partitioned disk slices that have been created using the format utility.
Answer: D

2. Which swap command can be used to add a swap file /export/swapfile to the system’s swap space?
A. swap -a /export/swapfile
B. swap -d /export/swapfile
C. swap -l /export/swapfile
D. swap -s /export/swapfile
Answer: A

3. What file do you edit to allow root access from a remote system?
A. /etc/default
B. etc/host.allow
C. etc/default/login
D. etc/default/login/remote
Answer: C

4. Which type of modem requires a Data Carrier Detect signal?
A. Null Modem
B. Single-duplex Modem
C. Bi-directional Modem
D. Mono-directional Modem
Answer: C

5. What is the Minimum amount of memory required to install Solaris 7?
A. 10 Mbytes
B. 64 Mbytes
C. 128 Mbytes
D. 256 Mbytes
Answer: B

6. What should the system administrator do when preparing the system for an operating system upgrade?
A. Shutdown the system, gather system data, and begin the upgrade process.
B. Shutdown the system, gather system data, warn users, and begin the upgrade process.
C. Warn users using an all system broadcast, gather system data, and begin the upgrade process.
D. Warn users using an all system broadcast, backup data, and begin the upgrade process.
Answer: D

7. What is the purpose of the Boot Server field in the Host Manager interface?
A. It is used to manage all name services on a network.
B. It is a predefined host selected as the Operating System (OS) server.
C. It is used to manage all name services on a network.
D. It is typically used when configuring a JumpStart server.
Answer: D

8. Identify the three components of installation software.
A. Patches, Packages, Software Clusters
B. Software Clusters, Patches, Packages
C. Configuration clusters, Patches, Software Clusters
D. Packages, Software clusters, Configuration Clusters
Answer: D

9. What is the function of the Domain Name Service (DNS)?
A. It is used within a TCP/IP network to translate host names to their associated IP addressed.
B. It stores information about workstation names and addresses, users, the network itself, and network services.
C. It provides a forwarding service that forwards host lookups to NIS if the information cannot be found in a DNS map.
D. It makes network administration more manageable by providing centralized control over a variety of network information.
Answer: A

10. What does a CacheFS file system improve?
A. the network backbone
B. SCSI throughput rates
C. NFS filesystem performance
D. monitor display performance
Answer: C

11. Which is a main advantage of a concatenated virtual file system?
A. Data segments are written in parallel.
B. The file system can be increased while it is mounted and in use.
C. Each physical disk must be attached to a different system interface.
D. The file system can utilize more disk space than is physically available.
Answer: B

12. Which describes the "sysidtool" tools of the Solaris 7 installation process ?
A. a utility used to install a Solaris 7 standalone system
B. a program used to configure the identity of the new system
C. a browser-based installation tool used to enable remote system installation
D. an upgrade option used to upgrade a system from an older release of Solaris 7
Answer: B

13. Which is NOT true regarding striped volumes?
A. Data segments can be written in parallel.
B. Striped Volumes result in performance improvement.
C. Each physical disk MUST attach to the same system I/O interface.
D. The segment size (stripe size) can be adjusted to optimize performance.
Answer: C

14. Which is NOT required by an AutoClient workstation?
A. /opt
B. /usr
C. swap
D. root (/)
Answer: A

15. Solstice Enterprise Volume Manager formats the disk into only two slices. By default, what are these two slices?
A. slice 3 (private area) and slice 4 (public area)
B. slice 3 (private area) and slice 7 (public area)
C. slice 4 (private area) and slice 6 (public area)
D. slice 6 (private area) and slice 7 (public area)
Answer: A

16. Which is the best description of authentication in Network Information Service Plus (NIS+) security?
A. It determines if the requester is a valid user on the network.
B. It determines if the server is a replica or root master within the namespace.
C. It determines if the user is permitted to read or modify requested information.
D. It determines if the specified group objects belong in the requested group directory.
Answer: A

17. What is the Minimum local disk space required for a diskless client workstation configuration?
A. 0 Mbytes
B. 55 Mbytes
C. 100 Mbytes
D. 1024 Mbytes
Answer: A

18. What is the MAXIMUM size limitation for a file system?
A. It cannot exceed 512k in size.
B. It cannot exceed 1024k in size.
C. It cannot exceed 1 TByte in size.
D. It is unlimited in size.
Answer: C

19. What is the size of the configuration cluster "Developer System Support" (64-bit support)?
A. 272 Mbytes
B. 438 Mbytes
C. 532 Mbytes
D. 837 Mbytes
Answer: D

20. The results of the Solaris installation can be found in which file?
A. /var/sadm/pkg
B. /var/adm/messages
C. /var/sadm/softinfo
D. /var/sadm/install_data/install_log
Answer: D

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