IT认证考试网

2009年02月28日

最新920-139认证考试题库下载

Filed under: Nortel — admin @ 11:23 pm

最新920-139考试题库

Examsoon最新920-139认证真题，真题覆盖率达到90%以上。考不过全额退款保障，让您认证无忧。绝对真实来自Examsoon的高质量题库。

购买920-139考试题库请认准Examsoon标志！切勿因贪便宜而造成不必要的损失和遗憾。下载题库及任何920-139问题请与我站管理员联系！

920-139 考试是 Nortel 公司的 NCDS Multimedia Communication Server(MCS)5100 3.0 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的920-139权威考试题库软件是Nortel认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon绝对保证第一次参加 920-139 考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

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920-139题库购买时请一定要认准Examsoon标志，世界第一IT认证资料服务提供商中国服务中心。

Examsoon
部分最新免费920-139认证题库：（您也可以联系我下载部分最新920-139考试题库）

　
　
Exam : NORTEL 920-139
Title : NNCDS Multimedia Communication Server(MCS)5100 3.0

1. A customer owns and supports an existing IP-based Enterprise network. They plan to deploy an MCS 5100 3.0 system as an application overlay on their existing network. According to the MCS 5100 logical hierarchy, which two levels of the logical hierarchy should be co-located given the connectivity requirements between the SIP Application Module and Database Module?
A. Points-of-Presence (PoPs) and Network Control Center (NCC)
B. Media Concentration Center (MCC) and Points-of-Presence (PoPs)
C. Network Control Center (NCC) and Network Signaling Center (NSC)
D. Network Signaling Center (NSC) and Media Concentration Center (MCC)
Answer: C

2. A customer is designing a new MCS 5100 3.0 system and wants to install an H.323 Gatekeeper to interwork with a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Release 4.0 system. They want to ensure that the ability to communicate with the CS 1000 system is NOT lost should the H.323 Gatekeeper fail. What should you recommend to the customer to address this reliability issue?
A. Configure the SIP Application Module to act as a Failsafe H.323 Gatekeeper.
B. Configure the H.323 Gatekeeper in the CS 1000 system as a Secondary Gatekeeper for the MCS 5100 system.
C. Deploy a second H.323 Gatekeeper on a separate server and define it as the Secondary Gatekeeper.
D. Deploy a second H.323 Gatekeeper on a separate server, define both H.323 Gatekeepers as Primary, and allow them to load share the traffic.
Answer: C

3. A customer has decided to purchase an MCS 5100 0 four-server system. In designing the MCS 5100 logical hierarchy, which information is required to determine the best location for local Points of Presence (PoPs)? (Choose two.)
A. the location of the Database Module
B. the locations of the SIP client population
C. the locations of the PSTN and PRI trunks
D. the location of the Network Control Center (NCC)
Answer: BC

4. A customer has an MCS 5100 3.0 four-server system. To implement redundancy and increase the capacity of their system they have decided to upgrade it to an eight-server system. Currently, the Management and Accounting Modules are installed on the same server (S1) in the four-server system. A second server (S2) has been installed to upgrade the system to the eight servers. How will redundancy be provided for the Management and Accounting Modules in the eight-server system?
A. The Management and Accounting Modules will be active on both S1 and S2 and will load share the traffic and provide hot backup.
B. The active Management and Accounting Modules will be on S1 and the standby Management and Accounting Modules will be on S2.
C. The active Management and standby Accounting Modules will be on S1 and the active Accounting and standby Management Modules will be on S2.
D. The Management Module will be active on S1 and the Accounting Module will be active on S2. An additional server will be required to provide redundancy for both modules.
Answer: C

5. A large, international customer with multiple sites spanning two countries is considering an MCS 5100 3.0 deployment on their existing Enterprise IP network. They are evaluating the possibility of placing the Network Signaling Center (NSC) at their headquarters, given its high network availability, site security, and site diversity. They also have decided to place the SIP Application Modules at the headquarters. What information do you need to collect from the customer to justify the placement of the NSC at the headquarters?
A. the planned location of the Database Module
B. the location(s) of the IP Phone population
C. the number and location of the active Media Application Servers
D. the planned location of the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) connections
Answer: A

6. A company plans to install a non-redundant MCS 5100 3.0 system in a dual-network deployment. A RTP Media Portal will also be installed to protect the integrity of the private MCS 5100 network, and to provide multimedia services for SIP clients within and outside of the private network. How should the RTP Media Portal be connected to the network?
A. both Ethernet interfaces are within the private MCS 5100 network
B. both Ethernet interfaces are within the Enterprise public network
C. in the boundary between the private and public networks
D. in the boundary between the private and public networks as well as in series with a firewall
Answer: C

7. A customer owns and supports an existing IP-based Enterprise network. They plan to deploy an MCS 5100 3.0 system with a SIP PRI Gateway and a H.323 Gatekeeper as an application overlay on their existing network. According to the MCS 5100 logical hierarchy, the third phase of the design process is the planning for voice, video, collaboration, and Instant Messaging (IM) traffic. Which two MCS 5100 component loads should you compute? (Choose two.)
A. Compute media loads on each of the RTP Media Portals.
B. Compute media loads on each of the Media Application Servers.
C. Compute total media loads on each of the MCS 5100 media components.
D. Compute session setup loads on each of the SIP PRI Gateways.
E. Compute session setup loads on each of the H.323 Gatekeepers.
F. Compute session setup loads on each of the MCS 5100 signaling components.
Answer: CF

8. In phase 1 of the MCS 5100 3.0 system logical hierarchy design, the comparison of MCS clients to Circuit-switched telephones produces what data?
A. MCS client penetration
B. Site Preference information
C. Circuit-switched traffic loads
D. Converged Desktop agent penetration
Answer: A

9. Click the exhibit button. In the non Call Center Enterprise deployment depicted below, what would be the percentage of traffic originating from the other networks terminating to the Site A MCS 5100 3.0 system compared to the total traffic?
A. Unable to determine with the presented information.
B. Traffic flows between communities are usually quite symmetrical, so s+t+u should equal 50%.
C. Traffic flows between communities are usually unbalanced with more out-going then in-coming traffic, so s+t+u would be less than 50%.
D. Traffic flows between communities are usually unbalanced with more in-coming then out-going traffic, so s+t+u would be greater than 50%.
Answer: B

10. A customer is designing a new MCS 5100 3.0 system and wants to configure the system in a single-network deployment. To support the number of users, two SIP Application servers will be used and each one will be connected to two Layer 2 switches for redundancy. The customer is concerned about reliability and wants to ensure that the loss of a SIP Application server will NOT impact call processing or existing media flows. Which recommendation should you make to address the customer’s reliability concerns?
A. Add an additional SIP Application server as a standby server.
B. Configure the MCS 5100 system in a dual-network deployment.
C. Configure one of the two SIP Application servers as a standby server.
D. Configure the MCS 5100 system in a dual-network deployment and add an additional SIP Application server as a standby server.
Answer: A

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920-139题库，不同于Testiinside 920-139、certtinside 920-139、Pass4side920-139、Testking920-139、Pass4sure920-139的题库资料，是全球IT认证资料供应力量，以高科技的仿真效果，完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题，保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

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4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前，请检测联接，可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性。

920-139 考试是 Nortel 公司的 NCDS Multimedia Communication Server(MCS)5100 3.0 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的 920-139 权威考试题库软件是 Nortel 认证厂商的授权产品，Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 920-139考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

NCDS Multimedia Communication Server(MCS)5100 3.0 认证作为全球IT领域专家 Nortel 热门认证之一，是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。 如果你正在准备 920-139 考试，为 Nortel NCDS Multimedia Communication Server(MCS)5100 3.0认证做最后冲刺，又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟， Examsoon希望能助你成功。

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免费920-121学习资料

Filed under: Nortel — admin @ 6:35 pm

最新920-121考试题库

Examsoon最新920-121认证真题，真题覆盖率达到90%以上。考不过全额退款保障，让您认证无忧。绝对真实来自Examsoon的高质量题库。

购买920-121考试题库请认准Examsoon标志！切勿因贪便宜而造成不必要的损失和遗憾。下载题库及任何920-121问题请与我站管理员联系！

920-121 考试是 Nortel 公司的 NNCSS MPS Application Developer 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的920-121权威考试题库软件是Nortel认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon绝对保证第一次参加 920-121 考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

选择 Examsoon 920-121 题库

920-121题库购买时请一定要认准Examsoon标志，世界第一IT认证资料服务提供商中国服务中心。

Examsoon
920-121学习资料

Examsoon
920-121题库，不同于Testiinside 920-121、certtinside 920-121、Pass4side920-121、Testking920-121、Pass4sure920-121的题库资料，是全球IT认证资料供应力量，以高科技的仿真效果，完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题，保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

Examsoon 920-121 的优势

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3.如果你使用 Examsoon模拟测试，我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功，否则，我们将全额退款！

4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前，请检测联接，可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性。

920-121 考试是 Nortel 公司的 NNCSS MPS Application Developer 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的 920-121 权威考试题库软件是 Nortel 认证厂商的授权产品，Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 920-121考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

NNCSS MPS Application Developer 认证作为全球IT领域专家 Nortel 热门认证之一，是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。 如果你正在准备 920-121 考试，为 Nortel NNCSS MPS Application Developer认证做最后冲刺，又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟， Examsoon希望能助你成功。

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2、售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，我们才能发展。客户至上是我们Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

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4、本站920-121题库根据920-121考试的变化动态更新，在厂家考题每次发生变化后，我们承诺2天内更新920-121题库。确保920-121考题的覆盖率始终都在95％以上；我们提供2种 920-121 考题大师版本供你选择。

5、软件版本920-121 考试题库
优点：具有学习模式，测试模式，线上自动升级
缺点：仅限固定电脑使用，不可打印为文本，只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式920-121考试题库
优点：不需下载安装软件，方便用户打印和携带，但也带来了可随意制的弊端，因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的920-121题库，一经发现立即取消其升级资格，且不予退款。
缺点：不具备测试模式，通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

Examsoon
部分最新免费920-121认证题库：（您也可以联系我下载部分最新920-121考试题库）

　
　
Exam : Nortel 920-121
Title : NNCSS MPS Application Developer

1. An application developer is entering a select statement into the Structured Query Language (SQL) block. In order to create a list of columns being returned into the application in the bottom Folder-Datacard selection list window, the application developer would right click the mouse and choose:
A. Return into
B. Create datacards
C. Bind with datanames
D. Copy from blocknames
Answer: A

2. The total call timer is required to be fixed at 20 minutes. To maximize system efficiency, where should the timer be set?
A. Configuration File
B. VSH Command Line
C. PeriProducer Handle Block
D. PeriProducer Environment Block
Answer: A

3. Tappman performs the following actions EXCEPT for:
A. application assignment to lines and IVR’s
B. scheduling applications to start and terminate
C. copying the executable file to the IVR at assigning time
D. checking to see what applications are currently running
Answer: C

4. Parameterized Containers in PeriProducer are being used. What restriction applies for passing an Array?
A. An Array can be passed without change.
B. An Array must be passed in a Shared Folder.
C. The folder containing the Array must be passed.
D. Arrays can not be passed to Parameterized Containers.
Answer: C

5. Which file contains records of SRP monitored processes?
A. %MPSHOMEcommonlogsrp.log
B. %MPSHOMEprocesslogssrp.log
C. %MPSHOMEcommonsrpproc.log
D. %MPSHOMEprocesslogsrpsrp.log
Answer: A

6. Tappman would need to be used in which scenario?
A. The Appman GUI tool is not accessible.
B. An application configuration file needs to be created.
C. The operator wants to set the kill timer to 60 seconds.
D. The operator needs to view a graphical display of applications currently running.
Answer: A

7. A customer wants their Statistical Collection Node to store Daily Statistics for up to five years. Which file needs to be modified to accomplish this task?
A. .conspr
B. .perireporter
C. schedule.cfg
D. pr_app_v5.plx
Answer: A

8. Which PeriProducer block is used to convey a message to a host using Communications Manager (COMMGR)?
A. System
B. Resource
C. Send Host
D. Environment
Answer: C

9. An application needs to have runtime options set within Appman. Which action will accomplish this task?
A. starting the application
B. assigning the application
C. configuring the application
D. terminating the application
Answer: C

10. A programmer allocated a fixed number of records during database initialization. What type of database file was initialized?
A. Flat File
B. Transient Data Queue (TDQ)
C. Index Sequential Access Method (ISAM)
D. Hash-Sequenced Access Method (HSAM)
Answer: D

最新000-221认证考试题库下载

Filed under: IBM — admin @ 1:46 pm

免费E20-501学习资料

Filed under: EMC — admin @ 12:49 pm

最新E20-501考试题库

Examsoon最新E20-501认证真题，真题覆盖率达到90%以上。考不过全额退款保障，让您认证无忧。绝对真实来自Examsoon的高质量题库。

购买E20-501考试题库请认准Examsoon标志！切勿因贪便宜而造成不必要的损失和遗憾。下载题库及任何E20-501问题请与我站管理员联系！

E20-501 考试是 EMC 公司的 Commercial Storage & Info Infrastructure Exam for Tech Archs 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的E20-501权威考试题库软件是EMC认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon绝对保证第一次参加 E20-501 考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

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E20-501题库购买时请一定要认准Examsoon标志，世界第一IT认证资料服务提供商中国服务中心。

Examsoon
E20-501学习资料

Examsoon
E20-501题库，不同于Testiinside E20-501、certtinside E20-501、Pass4sideE20-501、TestkingE20-501、Pass4sureE20-501的题库资料，是全球IT认证资料供应力量，以高科技的仿真效果，完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题，保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

Examsoon E20-501 的优势

1.Examsoon 模拟测试题具有最高的专业技术含量，只供具有相关专业知识的专家和学者学习和研究之用。

2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权，我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。

3.如果你使用 Examsoon模拟测试，我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功，否则，我们将全额退款！

4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前，请检测联接，可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性。

E20-501 考试是 EMC 公司的 Commercial Storage & Info Infrastructure Exam for Tech Archs 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的 E20-501 权威考试题库软件是 EMC 认证厂商的授权产品，Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 E20-501考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

Commercial Storage & Info Infrastructure Exam for Tech Archs 认证作为全球IT领域专家 EMC 热门认证之一，是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。 如果你正在准备 E20-501 考试，为 EMC Commercial Storage & Info Infrastructure Exam for Tech Archs认证做最后冲刺，又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟， Examsoon希望能助你成功。

1、Examsoon考题大师E20-501试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用本站的考试题库参加E20-501 考试，我们保证您一次轻松通过考试；

2、售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，我们才能发展。客户至上是我们Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

3、Examsoon实行“一次不过全额退款”承诺。如果您购买我们E20-501的考题，只要不是首次通过，凭盖有PROMETRIC或VUE考试中心钢印的考试成绩单，我们将退还您购买E20-501考题大师的全部费用，绝对保证您的利益不受到任何的损失；

4、本站E20-501题库根据E20-501考试的变化动态更新，在厂家考题每次发生变化后，我们承诺2天内更新E20-501题库。确保E20-501考题的覆盖率始终都在95％以上；我们提供2种 E20-501 考题大师版本供你选择。

5、软件版本E20-501 考试题库
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部分最新免费E20-501认证题库：（您也可以联系我下载部分最新E20-501考试题库）

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-501
Title : Commercial Storage & Info Infrastructure Exam for Tech Archs

1. XYZ Corporation has recently acquired a secondary data center that is approximately 800 km from its primary data center location. The storage environment at the primary site consists of the following:
Windows servers only
CLARiiON storage system
3 TB of data to be replicated
XYZ will purchase a CLARiiON system for the secondary data center, and they are looking for a scalable and cost-effective replication solution. Which EMC replication solution should you propose in this case?
A. MirrorView/A
B. MirrorView/S
C. RecoverPoint CRR
D. RecoverPoint/SE
Answer: D

2. A customer needs a disaster recovery solution for their Exchange environment. They currently have one site running Exchange within a SAN using CX3-80 storage, and the other smaller Exchange site using DAS. They want to implement a remote recovery solution for Exchange.
What solution will you recommend?
A. Replication Manager
B. RepliStor
C. SAN Copy
D. SnapView
Answer: B

3. Which protocol is used to connect the RecoverPoint Appliance and the storage array?
A. FCOE
B. Fibre
C. IP
D. iSCSI
Answer: B

4. Which Replication Manager user role has the rights to restore replicas?
A. Database Administrator
B. Operator
C. Power Administrator
D. Power User
Answer: A

5. A corporation recently acquired a secondary data center that is approximately 1,600 km from their primary data center location. The storage environment at the primary site consists of the following:
Windows and UNIX servers
CLARiiON storage system
10 TB of data to be replicated
T3 data link and 15-minute RPO
You are proposing a CLARiiON storage system for the secondary data center. Which EMC replication solution should you propose?
A. MirrorView/A
B. MirrorView/S
C. RecoverPoint CRR
D. RecoverPoint/SE
Answer: C

6. You have a customer with a remote facility containing only three Windows servers. They recently had their backup tapes fail, and they would like to implement a solution that removes tape from the remote facility, minimizes bandwidth utilization, and keeps the data secure when traveling across the network. If possible, they would like to use existing Windows servers in their data center to replicate the data to.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. AutoStart
B. Avamar
C. Disk Library
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

7. Your customer is currently using RepliStor at their main data center. They would also like to use it to copy data from their remote offices to the main data center. Their main concern is data security when copying from the remote offices.
What are the security features of RepliStor that would meet the customer’s data security need?
A. Connection, Digital Signature, Encryption
B. Digital Signature, Encryption, Data Verification
C. Encryption, Compression, Redundancy
D. Encryption, PKI, Masking
Answer: A

8. A customer wants to have automated failover during a Windows server outage, so that if the customer experiences a server outage, the recovery process will begin without human intervention.
Which EMC solution meets the customer requirement?
A. Celerra Replicator
B. NetWorker
C. RecoverPoint
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

9. Your customer has been using a CLARiiON CX4 array for several months and has asked you to help them design a data replication solution to their offsite facility approximately 250 km away. Their current network infrastructure can only provide them the equivalent of a T1 connection to the second facility, and they are asking for an RPO of no more than 20 minutes. They need to replicate roughly 1.75 TB of data with a change rate of less than 10%.
The solution must interoperate with Windows and Linux hosts, and maximize the limited bandwidth available to the customer today.
What replication solution would you suggest?
A. MirrorView/A
B. RecoverPoint CDP
C. RecoverPoint/SE CRR
D. SAN Copy
Answer: C

10. How does SAN Copy, running on a CLARiiON system, identify other storage systems?
A. Domain ID
B. FCID
C. MAC address
D. World Wide Names
Answer: D

11. Your customer has a mission-critical Oracle database on open systems and CLARiiON that needs an improved method of local replication. The customer wants to reduce as much as possible the amount of time between the each local replica, but is concerned about the disk space needed to maintain all the replicas. They estimate that they want to support about a week of replicas, but worry about the management needed to determine the correct replica to mount.
Which product provides the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. RecoverPoint CDP
B. RepliStor
C. SAN Copy
D. SnapView
Answer: A

12. Your customer has been using a CLARiiON CX4 array for several months in their Windows environment and has asked you to help them design a data replication solution to their offsite facility approximately 250 km away. Their current network infrastructure can only provide them the equivalent of a T1 connection to the second facility, and they are asking for an RPO of no more than 20 minutes. They need to replicate roughly 1.75 TB of data with a change rate of less than 10%.
The solution must scale easily and quickly to accommodate anticipated future growth, but provide them the lowest possible entry point to meet the current requirements.
Which replication solution would you suggest?
A. MirrorView/A
B. RecoverPoint CRR
C. RecoverPoint/SE CRR
D. SAN Copy
Answer: C

13. A customer wants to automate the setup and management of multiple replicas of the production database on the DMX-3 so developers can create and delete at will for aggressive application development lifecycles.
Which solution would you recommend?
A. RecoverPoint CRR
B. Replication Manager
C. RepliStor
D. SAN Copy
Answer: B

14. How would you describe Replication Manager’s chief customer benefit?
A. Allow the ability to have AS400 and mainframe hosts share the same BCV disk pool.
B. Automate the creation and management of replicas.
C. Enable consistent splits between multiple DMX-3 arrays.
D. Provide a simple GUI that allows backup applications to restore to disk.
Answer: B

15. A customer has an existing production CX3-80 at their primary site and a CX3-20 at a remote site 2,000 km away. They have three dedicated DS3 and four T1 connections. They need to replicate their critical databases from the primary site to the remote site. The total size of the databases is over 5 TB. They are interested in a SAN-based method to move that much data. Their requirement is a RPO of seconds to minutes.
They are currently negotiating a new WAN contract and are looking to reduce WAN bandwidth requirements. Which EMC solution do you recommend?
A. RecoverPoint CRR
B. RecoverPoint/SE
C. RepliStor
D. SAN Copy
Answer: A

16. Which RecoverPoint feature provides local synchronous replication between LUNs that reside in one or more arrays at the same site?
A. CDP
B. CRR
C. RPA
D. RPSD
Answer: A

17. Which EMC backup and recovery solution replicates individual open and closed files, directories, and shares?
A. Avamar
B. DiskXtender
C. EMC Legato
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

18. Which EMC backup and recovery solution features out-of-the box integration with Microsoft Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS)?
A. Avamar
B. DiskXtender
C. NetWorker
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

19. A customer backs up their Windows servers to tape. They would like to complement these backups with the ability to provide disaster recovery protection in between backups, allowing only minutes of data loss as well as the ability to recover within minutes or hours.
Which solution fits this requirement?
A. Avamar
B. Backup Advisor
C. Replication Manager
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

20. A customer has a production Microsoft SQL 2005 database server in an active-passive cluster attached to a CX3-20c with SnapView. They will be implementing a data warehouse on another SQL 2005 database server in a separate active-passive cluster also attached to the same CX3-20c for reporting and analytics.
Which product will automate the process of creating and promoting application consistent database replicas from the production server to the data warehouse server?
A. MirrorView/A
B. Navisphere
C. Replication Manager
D. VDI
Answer: C

最新e20-360认证考试题库下载

Filed under: EMC — admin @ 11:22 am

最新e20-360考试题库

Examsoon最新e20-360认证真题，真题覆盖率达到90%以上。考不过全额退款保障，让您认证无忧。绝对真实来自Examsoon的高质量题库。

购买e20-360考试题库请认准Examsoon标志！切勿因贪便宜而造成不必要的损失和遗憾。下载题库及任何e20-360问题请与我站管理员联系！

e20-360 考试是 EMC 公司的 networked storage-nas implementation 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的e20-360权威考试题库软件是EMC认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon绝对保证第一次参加 e20-360 考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

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e20-360题库购买时请一定要认准Examsoon标志，世界第一IT认证资料服务提供商中国服务中心。

Examsoon
部分最新免费e20-360认证题库：（您也可以联系我下载部分最新e20-360考试题库）

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-360
Title : Networked Storage-NAS Implementation Exam

1. What is a common name resolution used by both UNIX and Windows?
A. NIS
B. DNS
C. WINS
D. LMHOSTS
Answer: B

2. What are the requirements for connecting an NS600G/GS to be Direct Connected to an existing CX600?
A. Two [2] free ports per SP, 5 unbound disk drives, Acess Logix
B. Two [2] free ports per SP, 5 unbound disk drives, PowerPath 3.01
C. Four [4] free Fibre Switch ports, 5 unbound disk drives, PowerPath
D. Two [2] free ports per SP, 8+1 Raid 5 Group with 6 LUNs, Acess Logix
Answer: A

3. By default, Telnet is disabled on the Control Station. Which command enables it without a reboot?
A. $/sbin/chkconfig -s telnet
B. #/sbin/chkconfig telnet on
C. $/sbin/chkconfig telnet on
D. #/sbin/chkconfig telnet -start
Answer: B

4. Since an NS600S has only one [1] Data Mover and does not have a Standby Data Mover, what happens when that Data Mover fails?
A. The Data Mover is issued a reboot to try and restore service
B. It is powered down and the Control Station issues a Call Home
C. The Service Processor (P) takes over and normal operation continues
D. Alerts are sent to the Celerra Web Browser and Call Home is not issued
Answer: A

5. Which three [3] NS600 components are connected to the Internal Ethernet Switch?
A. Data Mover
B. Control Station
C. Storage Processor
D. Standby Power Supply
Answer: ABC

6. Which cable type is used to connect from a com port on the Service PC to the Com port on the front of an NS600 Control Station?
A. RJ11
B. Crossover
C. Null Modem
D. Straight-thru
Answer: C

7. What does the SPS (Standby Power Supply) to an NS600/NS600G allow the Celerra to do during a power failure?
A. Maintains full system availability
B. Power off the components immediately
C. Destage write cache to the vault on the first DAE2
D. Keep the components powered up until main power is restored.
Answer: C

8. What does the Disk Array Enclosure [DAE2], rack mounted enclosure, house?
A. Four [4] Disk Drives, two [2] Power Supplies and two [2] Link Controller Cards
B. Two [2] Link Controller Cards, two [2] Power Supplies and up to fifteen [15] Disk Drives
C. Up to fifteen [15] ATA Disk Drives, two [2] Link Controller Cards and two [2] Power Supplies
D. Four [4] Fibre Disk, eleven [11] ATA disk Drives, four [4] Link Controller Cards and two [2] Power Supplies
Answer: B

9. The NS600G/GS support either RAID 1 or RAID 5 Groups. Which NAS RAID Groups are they restricted to?
A. RAID;1 pairs, 4+1;RAID Group, 7+1;RAID Group and 6+1 ATA Disk Drives RAID Group
B. RAID;1 pairs, 4+1;RAID Group, 8+1;RAID Group and 6+1 ATA Disk Drives;RAID Group
C. RAID;1 pairs, 5+1;RAID Group, 8+1;RAID Group and 7+1 ATA Disk Drives;RAID Group
D. RAID;1 pairs, 4+1;RAID Group, 8+1;RAID Group and 3+1 ATA Disk Drives;RAID Group
Answer: B

10. Which protocol is the Common Internet File System (CIFS) based on?
A. NFS
B. SMB
C. NTFS
D. Samba
Answer: B

11. What platform do you need to run the Init Wizard on?
A. UNIX
B. Linux
C. Solaris
D. Windows
Answer: B

12. If Standby Power Supply (SPS) A or Standby Power Supply (SPS) B become disabled or fail, what is the consequence?
A. The up and running SPS will draw more power
B. All writes to the Data Mover file systems are halted
C. The NS600/NS600G will power down without problems
D. Write cache will be disabled and performance will be degraded
Answer: D

13. What happens when Disks 0 through 4, in the first Disk Array Enclosure [DAE2] have been swapped between themselves in your NS600?
A. There is no problem; this can be done at any time
B. The disk will be marked as faulted and a single reboot will clear the fault
C. The array will be marked as faulted and several reboots will clear the fault
D. The disk will not be recognized, will be marked as faulted and the array will not be able to boot
Answer: D

14. Which improvement is made when converting an NS600G direct connect to SAN connect?
A. Performance
B. Data throughput
C. Back-end redundancy
D. Front end network connectivity
Answer: C

15. Which RAID configurations can be used with the NS600?
A. RAID Level 1 and RAID Level 5
B. RAID Level 1, RAID Level 5 and RAID S.
C. RAID Level 1/0, RAID Level 5 and RAID S.
D. RAID Level 1, RAID Level 1/0 and RAID Level 5
Answer: A

16. How does the NS600/NS600S come preconfigured from the factory?
A. NAS Server via Fibre Switch
B. NAS Server in a heterogenous SAN
C. NAS only, back-end dedicated storage
D. NAS and SAN Open Back-end storage
Answer: C

17. What is a characteristic of Windows access control?
A. Access denied overrides all other permissions assigned to a user
B. When a folder and file have conflicting permissions, the folder permissions apply
C. When a share permission and NTFS permission conflict, the least restrictive applies
D. When a folder and file have conflicting permissions, data mover determines access rights
Answer: A

18. Your customer has a Celerra which is part of a Windows NT domain. They are upgrading to Windows 2000 and you need to configure the data mover to join the new domain. After removing the NetBIOS name from the data mover, you try to add the compname. When you issue the command, you get an error that the computer name already exists. What do you do next?
A. Choose another computer name to use
B. Use another administrator account and retry
C. Stop CIFS before trying to add the compname
D. Remove the computer name from the NT domain
Answer: D

19. Which component on a DAE2 can be hot swapped?
A. MUX board
B. SP Enclosure
C. Link Controller Cards
D. Data Mover Mother Board
Answer: C

20. CLARiiON uses 520 byte sectors while other vendors use only 512 byte sectors. What are the eight [8] extra bytes used for?
A. To create alternative sectors
B. For additional data protection
C. For Disk Drive Log errors only
D. To store cache writes for a power failure
Answer: B

Examsoon
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Examsoon
e20-360题库，不同于Testiinside e20-360、certtinside e20-360、Pass4sidee20-360、Testkinge20-360、Pass4suree20-360的题库资料，是全球IT认证资料供应力量，以高科技的仿真效果，完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题，保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

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3.如果你使用 Examsoon模拟测试，我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功，否则，我们将全额退款！

4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前，请检测联接，可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性。

e20-360 考试是 EMC 公司的 networked storage-nas implementation 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的 e20-360 权威考试题库软件是 EMC 认证厂商的授权产品，Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 e20-360考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

networked storage-nas implementation 认证作为全球IT领域专家 EMC 热门认证之一，是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。 如果你正在准备 e20-360 考试，为 EMC networked storage-nas implementation认证做最后冲刺，又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟， Examsoon希望能助你成功。

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4、本站e20-360题库根据e20-360考试的变化动态更新，在厂家考题每次发生变化后，我们承诺2天内更新e20-360题库。确保e20-360考题的覆盖率始终都在95％以上；我们提供2种 e20-360 考题大师版本供你选择。

5、软件版本e20-360 考试题库
优点：具有学习模式，测试模式，线上自动升级
缺点：仅限固定电脑使用，不可打印为文本，只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式e20-360考试题库
优点：不需下载安装软件，方便用户打印和携带，但也带来了可随意制的弊端，因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的e20-360题库，一经发现立即取消其升级资格，且不予退款。
缺点：不具备测试模式，通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

免费642-971学习资料

Filed under: Cisco — admin @ 4:10 am

最新642-971考试题库

Examsoon最新642-971认证真题，真题覆盖率达到90%以上。考不过全额退款保障，让您认证无忧。绝对真实来自Examsoon的高质量题库。

购买642-971考试题库请认准Examsoon标志！切勿因贪便宜而造成不必要的损失和遗憾。下载题库及任何642-971问题请与我站管理员联系！

642-971 考试是 Cisco 公司的 Data Center Networking Infrastructure Design Specialist 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的642-971权威考试题库软件是Cisco认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon绝对保证第一次参加 642-971 考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

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642-971题库购买时请一定要认准Examsoon标志，世界第一IT认证资料服务提供商中国服务中心。

Examsoon
642-971学习资料

Examsoon
642-971题库，不同于Testiinside 642-971、certtinside 642-971、Pass4side642-971、Testking642-971、Pass4sure642-971的题库资料，是全球IT认证资料供应力量，以高科技的仿真效果，完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题，保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

Examsoon 642-971 的优势

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2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权，我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。

3.如果你使用 Examsoon模拟测试，我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功，否则，我们将全额退款！

4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前，请检测联接，可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性。

642-971 考试是 Cisco 公司的 Data Center Networking Infrastructure Design Specialist 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的 642-971 权威考试题库软件是 Cisco 认证厂商的授权产品，Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 642-971考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

Data Center Networking Infrastructure Design Specialist 认证作为全球IT领域专家 Cisco 热门认证之一，是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。 如果你正在准备 642-971 考试，为 Cisco Data Center Networking Infrastructure Design Specialist认证做最后冲刺，又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟， Examsoon希望能助你成功。

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3、Examsoon实行“一次不过全额退款”承诺。如果您购买我们642-971的考题，只要不是首次通过，凭盖有PROMETRIC或VUE考试中心钢印的考试成绩单，我们将退还您购买642-971考题大师的全部费用，绝对保证您的利益不受到任何的损失；

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5、软件版本642-971 考试题库
优点：具有学习模式，测试模式，线上自动升级
缺点：仅限固定电脑使用，不可打印为文本，只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式642-971考试题库
优点：不需下载安装软件，方便用户打印和携带，但也带来了可随意制的弊端，因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的642-971题库，一经发现立即取消其升级资格，且不予退款。
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Examsoon
部分最新免费642-971认证题库：（您也可以联系我下载部分最新642-971考试题库）

　
　
Exam : Cisco 642-971
Title : Data Center Networking Infrastructure Design Specialist

1. Which service module configuration is recommended to automatically detect and block traffic from malicious hosts?
A. FWSM
B. IDSM that is deployed in IDS mode
C. IDSM that is deployed in IPS mode
D. FWSM that is coupled with the NAM
Answer: C

2. You work as a systems administrator at TestInside.com. You deploy the network for the company by using the default VDC high availability options in the Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch, what will happen then?
A. The VDC is deleted, and no further action is performed.
B. If dual supervisors are in use, a supervisor switchover is forced.
C. The VDC is deleted and then re-created with the startup configuration.
D. If a single supervisor is in use, a graceful restart is forced.
Answer: B

3. Which two security vulnerabilities does the FWSM application inspection engine mitigate? (Choose two.)
A. DoS attacks
B. DDoS attacks
C. SQL injection
D. cookie altering
E. web server worms
Answer: CD

4. Refer to the exhibit. Each letter (A-D) represents a model for placement of a default gateway. Which model allows the maximum number of application and security services?
A. model A
B. model B
C. model C
D. model D
Answer: C

5. What advantage does InfiniBand have over Gigabit Ethernet in HPC environments?
A. lower latency
B. simpler cabling
C. longer distance support
D. more sophisticated traffic management
Answer: A

6. Which problem can result from end-of-rack designs?
A. lower reliability
B. airflow restriction
C. more devices to manage
D. complex spanning-tree design
Answer: B

7. You are the senior desktop administrator for TestInside.com. A customer met a trouble: A failure occurs on one of the access layer uplinks(Refer to the exhibit). With your experience, which Layer 2 topology can cause a break in connectivity between the FWSMs?
A. looped square
B. looped triangle
C. loop-free U
D. loop-free inverted U
Answer: C

8. Refer to the exhibit.
Your customer is filling server racks sequentially, filling one rack before beginning the next. Which two access layer designs present challenges in this environment? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 2 loop-free U
C. Layer 2 looped square
D. Layer 2 looped triangle
E. Layer 2 loop-free inverted U
Answer: AB

9. You work as the network administrator at TestInside.com. And you are familiar with Cisco product, so as much as you know, which Cisco product is implemented for content routing purposes?
A. Cisco ACE GSS
B. Cisco ACE Module
C. Cisco ACE appliance
D. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches
Answer: A

10. Which data center network-architecture change is a result of the adoption of blade and 1-RU server technologies?
A. Layer 3 fault domains growing larger
B. Layer 2 fault domains growing larger
C. Layer 3 fault domains growing smaller
D. Layer 2 fault domains growing smaller
Answer: B

11. How is FCIP traffic marked with DSCP values?
A. The Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer Switch marks one DSCP value per FCIP tunnel.
B. The Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer Switch marks two DSCP values per FCIP tunnel.
C. The aggregation layer Ethernet switch marks one DSCP value per FCIP tunnel.
D. The aggregation layer Ethernet switch marks two DSCP values per FCIP tunnel.
Answer: B

12. A very large blade-server deployment has high throughput requirements for both data and storage networks. Which access layer option would you recommend?
A. blade server Ethernet switch with Cisco SFS 3000 Series Multifabric Switch
B. blade server InfiniBand switch with Cisco SFS 3000 Series Multifabric Switch
C. blade server Ethernet switch that is connected to Cisco Catalyst 4948 top-of-rack switch
D. blade server Ethernet switch that is connected to Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series end-of-rack switch
Answer: B

13. Your customer plans to deploy FWSM and IDSM modules in the aggregation layer. Which design should you avoid?
A. Layer 3
B. InfiniBand
C. Layer 2 loop-free
D. Layer 2 looped square
E. Layer 2 looped triangle
Answer: A

14. You are the senior desktop administrator for TestInside.com. You are deploying network for the company. With your experience, which of following two Cisco service modules can be implemented in redundant pairs with active-active failover? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco network analysis module
B. Cisco ACE Application Control Engine
C. Cisco Firewall Services Module (FWSM)
D. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series SSL Services Module (CVDM-SSLSM)
Answer: BC

15. You are a Cisco engineer of TestInside.com. You are implementing the Cisco Nexus environment for the company, so which two are requirements of FCoE in it? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol
B. Use of jumbo frames
C. TCP-driven retransmissions for flow control
D. IEEE 802.3x extensions to enable lossless Ethernet
Answer: BD

16. You are a help desk trainee for TestInside.com. One of your customers use the Cisco SFS family of products to provide server-side InfiniBand integration, but as far as you know, which two Cisco products should be implemented to make up the solution? (Choose two.)
A. Fibre Channel Host Channel Adapters
B. InfiniBand switch modules
C. Fibre Channel switch modules
D. InfiniBand HCA card for IBM and Dell servers
Answer: BD

17. Refer to the exhibit. What do you need to configure to prevent spanning-tree loops from occurring between the two FWSMs?
A. FWSMs in transparent mode
B. ethertype ACLs to allow BPDUs
C. FWSMs in multiple-context mode
D. failover and state interfaces on the same VLAN
Answer: B

18. Which three of the following service modules can be deployed in redundant pairs with active/active failover? (Choose three.)
A. ACE
B. CSM
C. NAM
D. IDSM
E. FWSM
F. SSLSM
Answer: ADE

19. You work as a systems administrator at TestInside.com. In order to realize to service multicast traffic in a data center environment, what three of following options are effective ways? (Choose three.)
A. deploying VRFs per address family
B. configuring service modules in transparent or bridged mode
C. configuring IGMP/PIM in the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series FWSM
D. configuring IGMP/PIM in the MSFC on a Cisco Catalyst 6500 switch
Answer: BCD

20. You are a Cisco engineer of TestInside.com. You are configuring the network for the company. The numbers in the ovals stand for the number of ports in each PortChannel(Refer to the exhibit). If VSS is deployed in the top four switches, as far as you know, how many ports at most that the virtual PortChannel in the core can have ?
A. two
B. four
C. six
D. eight
Answer: D

2009年02月27日

最新BI0-130认证考试题库下载

Filed under: COGNOS — admin @ 6:04 pm

最新BI0-130考试题库

Examsoon最新BI0-130认证真题，真题覆盖率达到90%以上。考不过全额退款保障，让您认证无忧。绝对真实来自Examsoon的高质量题库。

购买BI0-130考试题库请认准Examsoon标志！切勿因贪便宜而造成不必要的损失和遗憾。下载题库及任何BI0-130问题请与我站管理员联系！

BI0-130 考试是 COGNOS 公司的 Cognos 8 BI Modeler 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的BI0-130权威考试题库软件是COGNOS认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon绝对保证第一次参加 BI0-130 考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

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部分最新免费BI0-130认证题库：（您也可以联系我下载部分最新BI0-130考试题库）

　
　
Exam : COGNOS BI0-130
Title : Cognos 8 BI Modeler

1. The groups and roles defined in the Cognos namespace can be used to assign access rights to which of the following Framework Manager objects?
A. Query items.
B. Data sources.
C. Relationships.
D. Parameter maps.
Answer: A

2. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the implementation of object security in Framework Manager?
A. Groups and roles can be created in the Cognos namespace when specifying access to objects.
B. Even when object security is applied, if anonymous access is configured, every object in a Framework Manager project is visible to everyone.
C. A user belongs to two groups. One of the groups is denied access to an object. The other group is granted access to the object. The result is that user has access to the object.
D. Granting access to an object for one user, group or role (except the Everyone and All Authenticated Users groups), implicitly denies access to that object for all other users, groups or roles.
Answer: D

3. Based on the following graphic from Report Studio, what items can be accessed in the Members folder under Quarter?
A. All members of the Years hierarchy.
B. Only children of the Quarter members.
C. Only the members in the Quarter level.
D. All Quarter members and their children.
Answer: D

4. In Report Studio, in which situation is it most appropriate to use a Repeater Table?
A. Analyze financial data.
B. Create a mailing list report.
C. Compare values between and across items.
D. Clarify information not easily seen in a crosstab or list.
Answer: B

5. In Report Studio, where does a modeler enable or disable drill behavior on multi-dimensional data?
A. On the Toolbar.
B. From the Data menu.
C. In the Properties pane.
D. In the Insertable Objects pane.
Answer: B

6. In Report Studio, an author wants the cities listed in the City prompt to be based on the Country selected in the Country prompt. What property must the author define to accomplish this?
A. Range
B. Multi-Select
C. Cascade source
D. Default Selections
Answer: C

7. Which of the following utilities can be used to update PowerCubes without affecting users?
A. pcaccel.exe
B. CubeSwap.bat
C. RSUpgrade.bat
D. BMTScriptPlayer.exe
Answer: B

8. What is true of a Framework Manager model of an operational database lacking a time dimension?
A. Virtual star schema models require a time dimension for multi-fact queries.
B. Report authors cannot create multi-fact, time-based queries.
C. Time-based rollups for multi-fact queries may be difficult to handle.
D. Report authors cannot create multi-fact, time-based queries unless using a union.
Answer: C

9. What technique can Framework Manager modelers use to implement a time dimension for models that lack a time dimension?
A. Create relationships from date fields in one dimension to date fields in another dimension.
B. Use parameter maps to map date values in one query subject to date values in another query subject.
C. Use the Time Dimension wizard to generate a time dimension and create the appropriate relationships.
D. Identify a time dimension table source, import into the model and create relationships to fact query subjects.
Answer: D

10. In Report Studio, when would an author use the Condition Explorer?
A. To add a page set to a report.
B. To set the number of rows on a page.
C. To create a report title that changes according to a locale.
D. To navigate between report pages and prompt pages.
Answer: C

11. In Report Studio, why would an author set the scope when creating a filter?
A. To specify which grouped data item to filter.
B. To apply the filter after the data is aggregated.
C. To make the filter required, optional or disabled.
D. To apply the filter before the data is aggregated.
Answer: A

12. In Framework Manager, when using star schema groupings in the business view, conformed dimensions can be identified by which one of the following?
A. Using a different query subject icon for display in the studios.
B. Viewing the properties of the query subjects in Report Studio.
C. Viewing the properties of the query subjects in Framework Manager.
D. Using the same name for the dimension in each star schema grouping.
Answer: D

13. In Report Studio, based on the above crosstab, which relationship is true?
A. Quantity and Revenue are peers.
B. Order method is a peer of Retailer type.
C. Sales territory is a peer of Order method.
D. Sales territory is a peer of Quantity and Revenue.
Answer: A

14. In Report Studio, which item could be found in a package containing either relationally modeled data or dimensionally modeled relational data?
A. Level
B. Hierarchy
C. Dimension
D. Query item
Answer: D

15. Which of the following is correct regarding the Cognos 8 security environment?
A. Cognos 8 must be configured to use only one authentication provider at a time
B. To perform authentication of users, a connection to the Cognos namespace must be defined
C. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for users, groups and roles defined in the authentication providers
D. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for groups and roles (of which users are members), not individual users
Answer: C

16. Which of the following techniques can be used to improve performance of PowerCubes in Cognos 8 BI?
A. Run the cube through the pcoptimizer utility that is shipped with Cognos 8 BI.
B. Enable the Allow dynamic usage of dimension information governor in Framework Manager.
C. Edit the EnablePCOptimizer entry in the Cognos.ini file so that its value=1, and then rebuild the cube.
D. Ensure that the Pass-through SQL setting is enabled on all regular dimensions in the Framework Manager model.
Answer: A

17. If authors want to perform OLAP-style queries directly against a relational database, which Framework Manager modeling technique will a modeler use?
A. Create regular and measure dimensions and set scope.
B. Create shortcuts to regular dimensions and fact query subjects.
C. Create star schema groupings for dimension and fact query subjects.
D. Create relationships between regular dimensions and measure dimensions.
Answer: A

18. In Report Studio, a modeler wants to create a calculation using items that exist in the current report. On which tab are these items available?
A. Source tab
B. Functions tab
C. Data Items tab
D. Parameters tab
Answer: C

19. In Report Studio, if an author wants to add Revenue to a report, where can the author find Revenue if the package is based on an OLAP data source?
A. In a level.
B. In a hierarchy.
C. In a query subject.
D. In a measures dimension.
Answer: D

20. The following report was created in Report Studio using a relational package and shows revenue by sales rep, city, and country. What will the report show if the author creates a detail filter for Revenue>500,000 and applies the filter BEFORE auto aggregation?
A. Only reps who generated total revenue greater than 500,000.
B. Only cities that generated total revenue greater than 500,000.
C. Only countries that generated total revenue greater than 500,000.
D. Only reps who had individual sales transactions of greater than 500,000.
Answer: D

Examsoon
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Examsoon
BI0-130题库，不同于Testiinside BI0-130、certtinside BI0-130、Pass4sideBI0-130、TestkingBI0-130、Pass4sureBI0-130的题库资料，是全球IT认证资料供应力量，以高科技的仿真效果，完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题，保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

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BI0-130 考试是 COGNOS 公司的 Cognos 8 BI Modeler 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的 BI0-130 权威考试题库软件是 COGNOS 认证厂商的授权产品，Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 BI0-130考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

Cognos 8 BI Modeler 认证作为全球IT领域专家 COGNOS 热门认证之一，是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。 如果你正在准备 BI0-130 考试，为 COGNOS Cognos 8 BI Modeler认证做最后冲刺，又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟， Examsoon希望能助你成功。

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4、本站BI0-130题库根据BI0-130考试的变化动态更新，在厂家考题每次发生变化后，我们承诺2天内更新BI0-130题库。确保BI0-130考题的覆盖率始终都在95％以上；我们提供2种 BI0-130 考题大师版本供你选择。

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优点：不需下载安装软件，方便用户打印和携带，但也带来了可随意制的弊端，因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的BI0-130题库，一经发现立即取消其升级资格，且不予退款。
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免费642-691学习资料

Filed under: Cisco — admin @ 10:52 am

最新642-691考试题库

Examsoon最新642-691认证真题，真题覆盖率达到90%以上。考不过全额退款保障，让您认证无忧。绝对真实来自Examsoon的高质量题库。

购买642-691考试题库请认准Examsoon标志！切勿因贪便宜而造成不必要的损失和遗憾。下载题库及任何642-691问题请与我站管理员联系！

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642-691题库购买时请一定要认准Examsoon标志，世界第一IT认证资料服务提供商中国服务中心。

Examsoon
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Examsoon
642-691题库，不同于Testiinside 642-691、certtinside 642-691、Pass4side642-691、Testking642-691、Pass4sure642-691的题库资料，是全球IT认证资料供应力量，以高科技的仿真效果，完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题，保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

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2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权，我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。

3.如果你使用 Examsoon模拟测试，我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功，否则，我们将全额退款！

4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前，请检测联接，可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性。

642-691 考试是 Cisco 公司的 CCIP BGP + MPLS Exam (BGP + MPLS) 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的 642-691 权威考试题库软件是 Cisco 认证厂商的授权产品，Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 642-691考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

CCIP BGP + MPLS Exam (BGP + MPLS) 认证作为全球IT领域专家 Cisco 热门认证之一，是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。 如果你正在准备 642-691 考试，为 Cisco CCIP BGP + MPLS Exam (BGP + MPLS)认证做最后冲刺，又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟， Examsoon希望能助你成功。

1、Examsoon考题大师642-691试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用本站的考试题库参加642-691 考试，我们保证您一次轻松通过考试；

2、售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，我们才能发展。客户至上是我们Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

3、Examsoon实行“一次不过全额退款”承诺。如果您购买我们642-691的考题，只要不是首次通过，凭盖有PROMETRIC或VUE考试中心钢印的考试成绩单，我们将退还您购买642-691考题大师的全部费用，绝对保证您的利益不受到任何的损失；

4、本站642-691题库根据642-691考试的变化动态更新，在厂家考题每次发生变化后，我们承诺2天内更新642-691题库。确保642-691考题的覆盖率始终都在95％以上；我们提供2种 642-691 考题大师版本供你选择。

5、软件版本642-691 考试题库
优点：具有学习模式，测试模式，线上自动升级
缺点：仅限固定电脑使用，不可打印为文本，只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式642-691考试题库
优点：不需下载安装软件，方便用户打印和携带，但也带来了可随意制的弊端，因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的642-691题库，一经发现立即取消其升级资格，且不予退款。
缺点：不具备测试模式，通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

Examsoon
部分最新免费642-691认证题库：（您也可以联系我下载部分最新642-691考试题库）

　
　
Exam : Cisco 642-691
Title : Cisco CCIP BGP + MPLS Exam (BGP + MPLS)

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which two of the following statements about the MPLS configurations are true? (Choose two.)
A. The VPI range being configured is the default VPI range.
B. The router is missing the mpls label protocol ldp configuration command on its ATM 0/0.1 subinterface to make it an LC-ATM enabled subinterface.
C. There is a problem with the configurations because the control VC should be set to 0 32 instead.
D. The ATM switch is using VC merge since VC merge is enabled by default.
E. For MPLS label allocations, both VPI 6 and 7 can be used.
Answer: DE

2. For which purpose is the command mpls ldp maxhops used?
A. In large ATM-MPLS networks, the LFIB can become too large and it may be necessary to limit the maximum diameter of the MPLS LSPs.
B. Because downstream-on-demand label allocation uses hop count to control loop detection, it maybe necessary to limit the maximum diameter of the MPLS network.
C. Because end-to-end delay can cause problems with some voice applications, it may be necessary to limit the maximum diameter of the MPLS network.
D. When interconnecting large frame mode MPLS and cell mode networks it may be necessary to limit the maximum network diameter to prevent forwarding loops.
Answer: B

3. Which two of the following statements regarding LDP are true? (Choose two.)
A. LDP can also be used between nonadjacent routers using multicast LDP hello messages.
B. LDP does not require periodic hello messages once the LDP session has been established between the LDP peers.
C. LDP hello messages use TCP packets with a destination port number of 646.
D. Multiple sessions can be established between a pair of LSRs if they use multiple label spaces.
E. Per-platform label space can be identified by a label space ID of 0 in the LDP identifier field.
Answer: DE

4. As the penalty for a flapping route decreases and falls below a certain limit, the route is unsuppressed. What is the name of that limit?
A. half-life limit
B. suppress limit
C. max-suppress-time limit
D. reuse limit
E. unsuppress limit
F. penalty limit
Answer: D

5. Which show command can be used to display the originator ID and cluster-list?
A. show ip bgp
B. show ip bgp sum
C. show ip route bgp
D. show ip route {prefix}
E. show ip bgp {prefix}
F. show ip bgp neighbors {ip address}
Answer: E

6. Which two statements about a transit AS are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A transit AS has eBGP connection(s) to only one external AS.
B. Routes between ASs are always exchanged via eBGP.
C. A transit AS uses an IGP like OSPF or ISIS to propagate the external networks within the transit AS.
D. Core routers within a transit AS normally use default routing to reach the external networks.
E. iBGP sessions can be established between non directly connected routers.
Answer: BE

7. What does the following command accomplish? sanjose#clear ip bgp 10.1.1.1 in prefix-filter
A. The sanjose router will perform an outbound soft reconfig to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor.
B. The sanjose router will send out the ORF prefix-list so that a new route refresh will be received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor.
C. The 10.1.1.1 router will perform an inbound soft reconfig on the updates from the sanjose neighbor.
D. The 10.1.1.1 router will send out the ORF prefix-list so that a new route refresh will be received from the sanjose neighbor.
E. The bgp session between the sanjose and the 10.1.1.1 router will be reset so that all the new bgp updates from the 10.1.1.1 router can be processed by the inbound prefix-list at the sanjose router.
F. The bgp session between the sanjose and the 10.1.1.1 router will be reset so that all the new bgp updates from the sanjose router can be processed by the inbound prefix-list at the 10.1.1.1 router.
Answer: B

8. In a central services topology, which routes do client VRFs contain?
A. routes from the client site, but not from the server site
B. routes from the server site, but not from the client site
C. routes from both the client site and the server site
D. only EBGP routes from either the client site or the server site
Answer: C

9. Based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit, what is the correct configuration on the customer edge router used to conditionally announce the customer networks to the ISP?
A. router bgp 65001
! neighbor commands not shown
network 192.168.8.0 mask 255.255.252.0
!
ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 192.168.8.33
B. router bgp 65001
! neighbor commands not shown
aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only
!
ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 192.168.8.33
C. router bgp 65001
! neighbor commands not shown
network 192.168.8.0
network 192.168.9.0
network 192.168.10.0
network 192.168.11.0
!
ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.255.0 null0
ip route 192.168.9.0 255.255.255.0 null0
ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 null0
ip route 192.168.11.0 255.255.255.0 null0
D. router bgp 65001
! neighbor commands not shown
aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only
!
router ospf 1
network 192.168.8.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
E. router bgp 65001
! neighbor commands not shown
aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0
!
ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 null0
Answer: A

10. Based on the topology diagram shown in the exhibit, when should BGP be used as the routing protocol between the customer and the ISP?
A. If physical link failures can not be detected by the link-level procedures.
B. If the customer wants to affect how the ISP will route the customer’s traffic out to the rest of the Internet.
C. If the ISP does not support static routing with the customer.
D. If the customer is using provider-assigned (PA) addresses inside the customer’s network.
E. If the customer is using private addresses inside the customer’s network.
Answer: A

11. Which command is used to configure the external, confederation-wide AS number?
A. router(config)#router bgp {as-number}
B. router(config-router)#bgp confederation peers {as-number}
C. router(config-router)#bgp confederation identifier {as-number}
D. router(config-router)#bgp cluster-id {as-number}
E. router(config-router)#neighbor {ip address} remote-as {as-number}
Answer: C

12. Refer to the diagram. What problem can be caused by the second P router summarizing the loopback address of the egress PE router?
A. The first P router will be faced with a VPN label which it does not understand.
B. The second P router will be faced with a VPN label which it does not understand.
C. The egress PE router will not be able to establish a label switch path (LSP) to the ingress PE router.
D. A label switch path (LSP) will be established from the ingress PE router to the egress PE router, an event that is not desirable.
E. The ingress PE router will not be able to receive the VPN label from the egress PE router via MP-IBGP.
Answer: B

13. What are three drawbacks of a peer-to-peer VPN using a shared provider edge (PE) router? (Choose three.)
A. A full mesh of virtual circuits is required between the customer sites.
B. All the customers have to share a common IP address space.
C. Optimal routing between customer sites cannot be guaranteed.
D. The shared PE router has to know all routes for all customers.
E. Packet filters are required on the PE routers.
Answer: BDE

14. Based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit, both R5 and R6 are clients of the R2 RR. When the 10.0.0.0/8 iBGP update from R3 is received by the R2 RR, which router(s) will R2 reflect the update to?
A. R1 only
B. R5 and R6
C. R5, R6 and R1
D. R4, R5 and R6
E. R4, R5, R6 and R1
F. to no other router
Answer: C

15. On a dedicated subinterface implementation, PE-2 must establish an address-family vrf IPv4 BGP neighbor relationship with which router?
A. CE-1
B. CE-2
C. PE-1
D. PE-IG
E. CE-1 and CE-2
F. PE-1 and PE-IG
Answer: B

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Exam : IBM 000-731
Title : DB2 9 DBA for Linux,UNIX and Windows

1. Which of the following settings would allow 20 sorts with a maximum of 10MB each to run concurrently on a 64-bit instance?
A.Set the DB SHEAPTHRES to 50000 and the DB SORTHEAP to 2500.
B.Set the DBM SHEAPTHRES to 50000 and the DB SORTHEAP to 2500.
C.Set the DBM SHEAPTHRES to 50000 and the DBM SORTHEAP to 2500.
D.Set the DBM SHEAPTHRES_SHR to 50000 and the DBM SHEAPTHRES to 2500.
Answer: B

2. Given the table MYTAB:
A.The index MYINX will not be created.
B.The word UNIQUE will be omitted by DB2 and a non-unique index MYINX will be created.
C.The unique index MYINX will be created and the rows with duplicate keys will be deleted from the table.
D.The unique index MYINX will be created and the rows with duplicate keys will be placed in an exception table.
Answer: A

3. On a DB2 server with two instances, inst1 and inst2, inst1 is the default and current instance. Which of the following will successfully start the instance inst2?
A.db2start
B.db2start inst2
C.set db2instance=inst2 db2start
D.set db2instance inst2 db2start
Answer: C

4. Given the following notification log entry:
In order to determine the name of the application which encountered the error, which of the following actions must be taken?
A.Issue DB2 LIST DCS APPLICATIONS and search for AC14B132.OB12.0138C7070500
B.Issue DB2 LIST APPLICATIONS and search for AC14B132.OB12.0138C7070500
C.Issue DB2 LIST DCS APPLICATIONS and search for 660
D.Issue DB2 LIST APPLICATIONS and search for 660
Answer: B

5. Which of the following utilities provides a report of memory status for instances, databases, and agents?
A.db2mtrk
B.db2mchk
C.db2expln
D.db2memview
Answer: A

6. Which of the following authorities should a user have in order to QUIESCE the DB2 instance?
A.DBADM
B.SECADM
C.SYSMON
D.SYSMAINT
Answer: D

7. A DBA attempts to use the Task Center to schedule a daily database backup and is not successful. A GET ADMIN CFG command shows that TOOLSCAT_DB, TOOLSCAT_INST, and TOOLSCAT_SCHEMA are all NULL on the DB2 server where the backup task was attempted. What must be done to enable scheduling of tasks on this server using the Task Center?
A.Use the CREATE DATABASE command to create a database called TOOLSDB.
B.Use the CREATE TOOLS CATALOG command to create the DB2 tools catalog tables in a new or existing database.
C.Create a table space called SYSTOOLSPACE in the database that the Task Center was trying to schedule a Backup for using CREATE TABLESPACE.
D.Create a new schema called TOOLSCAT in the database that the Task Center was trying to schedule a Backup for and then use UPDATE ADMIN CFG to reference that database, instance and schema.
Answer: B

8. Which of the following would prevent an application from waiting indefinitely to obtain a lock on table T1?
A.Alter table T1 locksize table
B.Update db cfg for sample using lock_wait 10000
C.Update db cfg for sample using locktimeout 10000
D.Update db cfg for sample using lock_wait automatic
Answer: C

9. Given the following situation:
What happens after restoring the table space ts1 and issuing the following command?
db2 rollforward db sample to 2006-06-16-14.21.56 and stop tablespace(ts1)
A.The roll forward is executed to the end of logs.
B.The roll forward is not executed and an error message is generated.
C.The roll forward is executed and table t4 is placed in set integrity pending state.
D.The roll forward is executed and tables t1 and t4 are placed in set integrity pending state.
Answer: C

10. An excerpt from an application snapshot reveals the following :
Which of the following configurations would be observed?
A.INTRA_PARALLEL ON and MAXAGENTS 4 and database configuration DFT_DEGREE 1
B.INTRA_PARALLEL ON and MAX_QUERYDEGREE 3 and database configuration DFT_DEGREE 4
C.INTRA_PARALLEL ON and MAX_QUERYDEGREE 6 and database configuration DFT_DEGREE 1
D.INTRA_PARALLEL ON and MAX_QUERYDEGREE 4 and database configuration DFT_DEGREE ANY
Answer: D

11. Which of the following REORG table options will compress the data in a table using the existing compression dictionary?
A.KEEPEXISTING
B.KEEPDICTIONARY
C.RESETDICTIONARY
D.EXISTINGDICTIONARY
Answer: B

12. For a DB2 instance db2inst1 on a server with port 50000 available, which of the following commands must be run in order to configure DB2 to listen for incoming TCP/IP connections?
A.a, b, c
B.c, e, f
C.a, d, e
D.a, c, e
Answer: D

13. Given the following server information, which of the following commands will catalog this node?
A.CATALOG TCPIP NODE db2tcp REMOTE 10.205.15.100
B.CATALOG TCPIP NODE db2tcp REMOTE tcphost SERVER 60000
C.CATALOG TCPIP NODE db2tcp REMOTE tcphost SERVER db2inst1
D.CATALOG TCPIP NODE db2tcp REMOTE tcphost INSTANCE db2inst1
Answer: B

14. Which of the following commands can be used to force all users and applications from all databases?
A.FORCE ALL
B.FORCE USERS ALL
C.FORCE APPLICATION ALL
D.FORCE USERS, APPLICATION ALL
Answer: C

15. A database administrator needs to benchmark a database for both SQL and XQUERY. What utility can be used to accomplish this task?
A.db2batch
B.db2explain
C.db2analyze
D.db2benchmark
Answer: A

16. Based on the following database manager configuration parameter values :
What is the maximum number of applications that can be executing concurrently in the instance?
A.50
B.100
C.200
D.400
Answer: B

17. The LIST APPLICATIONS command provides the following output:
The Database Administrator needs to force the application myapp executed by user usr1. Which command must be issued?
A.FORCE APPLICATION (25667)
B.FORCE APPLICATION (myapp)
C.FORCE APPLICATION (myapp user usr1)
D.FORCE APPLICATION (LOCAL.DB2.060609075930)
Answer: A

18. The database sample is created using the following command:
In order to update statistics for only the tables that need it, between the hours of midnight and 2am, what actions must be taken?
A.Enable HEALTH MONITOR for the database.
B.Update the relevant database configuration parameters.
C.Update the relevant database manager configuration parameters.
D.Use automatic maintenance and define an appropriate maintenance window.
Answer: D

19. There is a job in Task Center scheduled to run every Saturday. The Scheduler is turned off on Friday for system maintenance and then restarted on Monday. Under which of the following conditions is the job scheduled for Saturday executed when the Scheduler is restarted?
A.The exec_exp_task DB2 registry is set to yes.
B.The exec_exp_task Database configuration parameter is set to yes.
C.The exec_exp_task Database Manager configuration parameter is set to yes.
D.The exec_exp_task Administration server configuration parameter is set to yes.
Answer: D

20. Which of the following statements about SCHEMA objects is true?
A.A schema must always be associated with a user.
B.Triggers and sequences do not have schemas associated with them.
C.After creating a new database, all users who successfully authenticate with the database have the ability to create a new schema.
D.If a schema is not explicitly specified in a SQL statement, the PUBLIC schema is assumed.
Answer: C

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Exam : IBM LOT-849
Title : IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Managing Servers and Users

1. Smart Upgrade failover utilizes what search order?
A. By document link in the Notes client
B. By server name and hard-coded path to the Smart Upgrade database
C. By database replica ID and database name in the home server cluster
D. By notes.ini variable on the client listing all servers in the domain the Smart Upgrade database may be found on
Answer: C

2. The Smart Upgrade function can be configured to adjust an installation between just the Notes client or all clients automatically. Where is the parameter read to make this automatic adjustment?
A. The Notes client notes.ini file
B. The Domino server notes.ini file that holds the Smart Upgrade database
C. The server document for the server that holds the Smart Upgrade database
D. The server configuration document for the server that holds the Smart Upgrade database
Answer: A

3. Which of the following mail features is not available in the basic version of the Lotus Notes client?
A. Message recall
B. Attention indicators
C. Choice of preview pane location
D. Reply to all without attachments
Answer: C

4. You want to restrict simple search to enhance server performance by preventing users from searching databases on a server that do not have full-text search enabled. In which of the following locations is this configured?
A. The server document
B. The server notes.ini
C. The server configuration document
D. The advanced properties of each database
Answer: D

5. Which of the following is not available for modification with the install manifest?
A. Sametime
B. Activities
C. IBM Productivity Tools
D. Composite application editor
Answer: A

6. In which of the following databases does the Server Health Monitor store it’s health reports?
A. shmon.nsf
B. dommon.nsf
C. statrep.nsf
D. serverhm.nsf
Answer: B

7. You are enabling a policy for the Productivity Tools. Which of the following is NOT available to configure in this policy?
A. The ability to open SmartSuite files
B. The ability to allow the user to run macros
C. The ability to allow the use of Productivity Tools
D. The ability to restrict attaching Productivity Tool documents
Answer: D

8. When installing the Notes client, what documents are created by default that contain communication, Java applet security and port information?
A. Account
B. Location
C. Connection
D. Certificate
Answer: B

9. Jordan, the Domino administrator, has configured replication probes in DDM but nothing is being reported into the DDM database. What could be the possible cause of this?
A. Replication is up to date and was attempted, but was considered Null.
B. Replication was attempted but the destination server could not be reached for the probe check.
C. Replication was performed and numerous changes were made to the source database and none to the spokes.
D. Replication was attempted but the source server did not have proper access to replicate so replication was skipped.
Answer: A

10. Liz wishes to disable transaction logging for a particular database on a server with transaction logging enabled. However, she cannot see the Advanced Database Properties to do so. What is the cause of this?
A. She is not in the Administrators field on the server document.
B. She cannot selectively turn off transaction logging for individual databases.
C. She must add the notes.ini line to the server DisableTransLog=name of database.
D. Transaction logging can only be disabled per document, not for an entire database.
Answer: A

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2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权，我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。

3.如果你使用 Examsoon模拟测试，我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功，否则，我们将全额退款！

4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前，请检测联接，可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性。

LOT-849 考试是 IBM 公司的 IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Managing Servers and Users 认证考试官方代号，Examsoon的 LOT-849 权威考试题库软件是 IBM 认证厂商的授权产品，Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 LOT-849考试的考生即可顺利通过，否则承诺全额退款！

IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Managing Servers and Users 认证作为全球IT领域专家 IBM 热门认证之一，是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。 如果你正在准备 LOT-849 考试，为 IBM IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Managing Servers and Users认证做最后冲刺，又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟， Examsoon希望能助你成功。

1、Examsoon考题大师LOT-849试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用本站的考试题库参加LOT-849 考试，我们保证您一次轻松通过考试；

2、售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，我们才能发展。客户至上是我们Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

3、Examsoon实行“一次不过全额退款”承诺。如果您购买我们LOT-849的考题，只要不是首次通过，凭盖有PROMETRIC或VUE考试中心钢印的考试成绩单，我们将退还您购买LOT-849考题大师的全部费用，绝对保证您的利益不受到任何的损失；

4、本站LOT-849题库根据LOT-849考试的变化动态更新，在厂家考题每次发生变化后，我们承诺2天内更新LOT-849题库。确保LOT-849考题的覆盖率始终都在95％以上；我们提供2种 LOT-849 考题大师版本供你选择。

5、软件版本LOT-849 考试题库
优点：具有学习模式，测试模式，线上自动升级
缺点：仅限固定电脑使用，不可打印为文本，只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式LOT-849考试题库
优点：不需下载安装软件，方便用户打印和携带，但也带来了可随意制的弊端，因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的LOT-849题库，一经发现立即取消其升级资格，且不予退款。
缺点：不具备测试模式，通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

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