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2009年01月31日

免费920-124学习资料

Filed under: Nortel — admin @ 9:17 pm

最新920-124考试题库

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Exam : Nortel 920-124
Title : NNCDS -Ethernet Switching Exam

1. Given the following network information:
A technical training institute has a main office and three branch offices located within a campus environment.
The main office uses a Passport 8600 routing switch and each branch office has a Passport 1648T routing switch.
The Passport 1648T in each branch office connects to the main office Passport 8600 using Gigabit Ethernet links.
OSPF has been implemented as the institute’s inter-office routing protocol.
The institute wants to be able to share a common connection to the Internet from the main office using the Passport 8600, so that all the branch offices can have access to the latest technology and certification information.
Which method should be implemented for the connection between the Passport 8600 and the Internet to provide this capability?
A. Use BGP-4
B. Use OSPF
C. Use RIP v2.
D. Use default routing
Answer: D

2. Given this network information:
A customer has a single BayStack 470-48T connected to the corporate network via a Passport 8600.
The connection to the Passport 8600 is through two Gigabit Ethernet uplinks configured in a MultiLink Trunk (MLT).
Due to an increase in the number of users that need to be supported, two additional BayStack 470-48Ts will be installed so that all of the switches are stacked together and managed as a single unit.
The customer wants to implement fail-safe stacking to ensure that if any one of the switches fails, the remaining switches in the stack will still function and have connectivity to the corporate network.
What must be done to the customer’s configuration to meet the requirements in this situation?
A. Convert the MLT into a Distributed MLT.
B. Use Gigabit Ethernet uplink connectors that support LinkSafe.
C. Connect the BayStack 470-48T switches in a stack up configuration.
D. Connect at least one Gigabit Ethernet uplink on each BayStack 470-48T.
Answer: A

3. A large telecommunications equipment manufacturer wants a routing protocol solution for their network of Passport 8600 and 1648T routing switches.
The company has provided you with their routing protocol requirements:
Capable of managing a maximum hop count of 15.
Supports Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM) and Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) for IP optimization.
Provides quick convergence of routing changes.
Supports routing authentication.
Provides logical grouping of routers.
What routing protocol will you recommend to the company?
A. RIP v2
B. BGP-4
C. RIP v1
D. OSPF
Answer: D

4. A customer has connected his stack of BayStack 470-48Ts to the network core in this way:
Two Passport 8600s running VRRP are at the network core
Two Gigabit Ethernet links configured in a Split MultiLink Trunk (SMLT) connect the BayStack 470-48T stack and the two Passport 8600s
Two Gigabit Ethernet connections provide the IST connections between the Passport 8600s The customer wants to load share the Layer 3 traffic across the SMLT links.
Which configuration change will provide the greatest benefit to the customer?
A. Enable ECMP on the SMLT links to allow the Passport 8600s to load share traffic.
B. Disable VRRP on the Passport 8600s, and use static routes to distribute the traffic between the two trunks.
C. Use the VRRP extension, BackupMaster, on the Passport 8600s to allow the backup VRRP switch to route traffic for entries in its routing table.
D. Decrease the cost of the IST paths to allow more traffic on the connection between the two Passport 8600s, so that routed traffic can use both SMLT links.
Answer: C

5. A small-enterprise customer wants to provide routing functionality to their data network. They are planning to implement two Passport 1424T routing switches and one Passport 1648T routing switch. The customer’s Network Administrator has very limited knowledge and experience in routing and is looking for an easy way to configure and manage a classless routing protocol to be used on the network. Which routing protocol will most effectively meet the customer’s requirements?
A. BGP-4
B. OSPF
C. RIP v2
D. RIP v1
Answer: C

6. The BayStack 10 PSU configured without UPS will provide protection against which failure scenario?
A. rolling blackouts
B. regional power surges and sags
C. power loss to the entire building
D. failure of the primary AC power supply on a BayStack switch
Answer: D

7. A user wants to allow and disallow communications in their Passport 8600 environment based on device MAC addresses. Which type of VLAN should be employed?
A. port-based
B. MAC-based
C. MAC-device
D. Device-based
Answer: B

8. A customer is designing a switched network and wants to make use of all three of their Passport 8600s at the network core. The customer wants to ensure redundancy for the uplink connections from their BayStack switches (click on the exhibit button). Which statement is true regarding the design?
A. The configuration is invalid. Only one IST is allowed per Passport 8600.
B. The configuration is invalid. Each IST connection must contain two links for redundancy.
C. The IST links between each pair of Passport 8600s must both be in the same VLAN for the configuration to be valid.
D. Spanning tree must be enabled in the spanning tree group that the IST links are configured in, to avoid any potential loops..
Answer: A

9. You are designing a switched network for a customer using Business Policy Switch (BPS) 2000s. What are two benefits of multiple STGs on the BPS 2000? (Choose two.)
A. They allow for MultiLink Trunks to be configured to provide redundancy.
B. A BPS 2000 can be connected to a BayStack 450 stack to provide multiple STGs on the hybrid stack.
C. Multiple STGs can provide multiple data paths, which can be used for load balancing and redundancy.
D. When interconnecting multiple BPS 2000 switches, connections can be assigned in different STGs to avoid blocked ports.
Answer: CD

10. A customer is expressing concern about reliability for their trunking implementation. How can the Passport 8600 cost-effectively eliminate a single point of failure in this scenario?
A. configure multiple Passport 8600s
B. add a second switch fabric module
C. duplicate the trunk elements in software
D. distribute the trunks across separate modules
Answer: D

11. You have designed a network with three wiring closets and three VLANs. All three VLANs are present in each wiring closet and VLAN tagging is used on the closet interconnections. Which best describes the VLAN Identifier (VID)?
A. It is a classification mechanism that associates a port with a specific VLAN.
B. It is the 12-bit portion of the VLAN tag in the frame header that identifies to which VLAN a packet belongs.
C. It is a set of ports that form a collision domain for a specific VLAN. A port can be a member of one or more VLANs.
D. It is a three-bit field in the header of a tagged frame. The field is interpreted as a binary number, and therefore can have a value of 0 – 7.
Answer: B

12. Two BayStack 450-24Ts will be used in a stack to connect the company servers to the network. One MLT is used to connect this stack to the core via the Gigabit MDA’s in each BayStack 450. Each server is equipped with dual 10/100 network interface controllers (NICs) and will connect via MLT to the BayStack 450. How many servers can be supported on this switch in this scenario?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: D

13. A technician replaced the fan tray in a fully loaded Passport 8600 in a total of 60 seconds. What was the minimum possible effect on packet forwarding during the time required to complete the replacement?
A. No effect.
B. Forwarding stopped for 60 seconds.
C. Packets received during 60 second interval will be lost.
D. Packets received during 60 second interval will be tagged for resend.
Answer: A

14. A RIP network has NOT created specific policies that will advertise into an OSPF network. How will OSPF treat the routes?
A. OSPF will ignore the routes from the RIP network.
B. OSPF will accept the routes from the RIP network.
C. OSPF will accept only generic Type I routes from the RIP network.
D. OSPF will accept only generic Type II routes from the RIP network.
Answer: A

15. A switch and server configuration is using Multi-link Trunking (MLT) to aggregate multiple 100-MB links. What happens if a single link fails?
A. forwarding stops
B. forwarding stops until link is restored
C. forwarding continues over remaining links
D. forwarding is diverted to next available group
Answer: C

最新JN0-340认证考试题库下载

Filed under: Juniper Networks — admin @ 3:31 pm

最新JN0-340考试题库

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Examsoon
部分最新免费JN0-340认证题库
:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新JN0-340考试题库)

 
 
Exam : Juniper JN0-340
Title : Juniper Networks Certified Internet Associate, J-series (JNCIA-J)

1. Which command configures a minimal SNMP configuration?
A. edit snmp community juniper
B. set snmp server 10.12.1.1 version 2c
C. set snmp community juniper authorization read-only
D. snmp community juniper authorization read-only
Answer: C

2. What is one way to activate the rescue configuration on a J-series router?
A. Issue the load rescue command
B. Issue the activate rescue command
C. Press the rescue button for less than 5 seconds
D. Press the configuration button for less than 5 seconds
Answer: D

3. A J-series router can classify packets using which three methods? (Choose three.)
A. Evil bit
B. 802.1P
C. IP DSCP
D. MLPPP bundle
E. Multifield classifier
Answer: BCE

4. Which CLI command activates your configuration changes on the router?
A. save
B. commit
C. set run config
D. copy start run
Answer: B

5. Which J-Web menu is used to view the current NAT pools being used on the router?
A. Monitor -> NAT
B. Manage -> NAT
C. Diagnose -> NAT
D. Configuration -> NAT
Answer: A

6. Which of the following loads a factory default configuration onto your router if you do not have access to the router CLI?
A. Press the power button for less than 5 seconds
B. Press the power button for more than 5 seconds
C. Press the configuration button for less than 5 seconds
D. Press the configuration button for more than 5 seconds
Answer: D

7. Which CLI command can assist you with configuration syntax?
A. help cli
B. help topic
C. help apropos
D. help reference
Answer: D

8. When configuring an IPSec tunnel on a J-series router, which two options are required? (Choose two.)
A. IKE secret key
B. Encryption algorithm
C. Remote tunnel hostname
D. Remote tunnel endpoint address
Answer: AD

9. How is the J-Web interface accessed?
A. Using telnet
B. Using SSH
C. Using rlogin
D. Using HTTP
E. Using gopher
Answer: D

10. A stateful firewall on a J-series router is applied to which interface?
A. WAN interface
B. Trusted interface
C. Loopback interface
D. Untrusted interfaace
Answer: D

11. Which two statements regarding the JUNOS software user authentication methods are correct? (Choose two.)
A. All users must be configured locally on the router
B. Multiple authentication methods can be configured
C. Only one authentication method can be configured
D. Multiple users can authenticate using a common local user account
Answer: BD

12. You are in the Configuration -> Quick Configuration -> Set Up menu of the J-Web application. Which two fields must be filled in before the router will commit any changes? (Choose two).
A. Hostname
B. Root password
C. DNS name server
D. Loopback address
Answer: AB

13. Within the J-Web initial setup wizard, which menu is used to configure community and trap group information for the router?
A. Users
B. Set Up
C. SNMP
D. Interfaces
Answer: C

14. The router is attempting to perform autoinstallation using interface fe-0/0/0 , but has had three unsuccessful attempts. What is the next step it performs?
A. It shuts down all of its interfaces
B. It activates DHCP in server mode
C. It waits 30 seconds and then tries again
D. It reboots itself and attempts autoinstallion again
Answer: B

15. How do you disable the autoinstallation functionality on a J-series router?
A. Return the router to the factory default configuration
B. Reboot the router using the removable PCMCIA flash
C. Remove the autoinstallation configuration from the router
D. Compress the configuration button for more than 5 seconds
Answer: C

16. The built-in service module on a J-series router supports which two service types? (Choose two.)
A. NAT
B. L2TP
C. IPSEC
D. SSL VPN
Answer: AC

17. The use of NAT can break the operation of protocols which signal dymanic port numbers within the packet flow. Which technology can be used in a NAT configuration to solve this problem?
A. Stateful firewall
B. Intrusion detection
C. Port address translation
D. Application layer gateways
Answer: D

18. Autoinstallation supports which three options for obtaining configuration information? (Choose three.)
A. ILMI
B. RARP
C. DHCP
D. SNMP
E. SLARP
Answer: BCE

19. Which J-series router process is responsible for performing autoinstallation?
A. rpd
B. dhcpd
C. autod
D. slarpd
Answer: C

20. Which two statements accurately reflect the operation of a packet filter on a J-series router? (Choose two.)
A. It maintains protocol state
B. It does not maintain protocol state
C. It processes packets independently of a particular flow
D. It processes packets within the context of a particular flow
Answer: BC

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4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前,请检测联接,可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性。

JN0-340 考试是 Juniper Networks 公司的 Juniper Networks Certified Internet Associate, J-series (JNCIA-J) 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的 JN0-340 权威考试题库软件是 Juniper Networks 认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 JN0-340考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

Juniper Networks Certified Internet Associate, J-series (JNCIA-J) 认证作为全球IT领域专家 Juniper Networks 热门认证之一,是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。 如果你正在准备 JN0-340 考试,为 Juniper Networks Juniper Networks Certified Internet Associate, J-series (JNCIA-J)认证做最后冲刺,又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟, Examsoon希望能助你成功。

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4、本站JN0-340题库根据JN0-340考试的变化动态更新,在厂家考题每次发生变化后,我们承诺2天内更新JN0-340题库。确保JN0-340考题的覆盖率始终都在95%以上;我们提供2种 JN0-340 考题大师版本供你选择。

5、软件版本JN0-340 考试题库
优点:具有学习模式,测试模式,线上自动升级
缺点:仅限固定电脑使用,不可打印为文本,只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式JN0-340考试题库
优点:不需下载安装软件,方便用户打印和携带,但也带来了可随意制的弊端,因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的JN0-340题库,一经发现立即取消其升级资格,且不予退款。
缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

最新220-702认证考试题库下载

Filed under: CompTIA — admin @ 10:43 am

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最新000-331认证考试题库下载

Filed under: IBM — admin @ 3:59 am

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Exam : IBM 000-331
Title : Power Systems Sales for AIX and Linux

1. A Power Systems sales representative has a meeting with the CIO of a telecommunications company. They have twenty POWER4 systems now. They have ample budget for the new POWER6 systems. They want to move very quickly into virtualization and are anxious to order additional servers. The customer must be in production within 90 days. Which of the following is the key challenge for this opportunity?
A. Adequate funding
B. Business problem
C. Project management
D. Software requirements
Answer: C

2. A POWER6 server customer plans to implement 2 micro partitions (one Linux, one AIX) to be managed by an existing HMC on a 520 server. Which of the following is the minimum version of PowerVM Editions to meet this need?
A. Entry
B. Express
C. Standard
D. Enterprise
Answer: C

3. A customer is concerned that if several systems are consolidated on a single Power Systems server, the administration costs will not go down. Which virtualization feature should be discussed to minimize this concern?
A. Virtual LAN (VLAN)
B. Virtual I/O Server (VIOS)
C. Dynamic Logical Partition (DLPAR)
D. Simultaneous Multi-threading (SMT)
Answer: C

4. A Power Systems sales representative has had several meetings with the CIO of a large company. They have a mixture of SUN and IBM servers now. The CEO has a long term relationship with the SUN representative. They have ample budget to refresh all the systems. Which of the following is key for the sales representative to identify?
A. Business problem
B. Software requirements
C. Decision-maker and process
D. Project timing requirements
Answer: C

5. A customer with several older pSeries servers plans to consolidate to a single Power Systems server. Which of the following tools can provide output that can be merged with Work Load Estimator to size the upgrade based on utilization and growth trends?
A. Insight Manager
B. System Planning Tool
C. Tivoli Capacity Planner
D. Electronic Service Agent
Answer: B

6. A Power Systems sales representative has a meeting with the I/S Director of a large company with twenty HP Superdomes systems. They plan to move their applications to IBM POWER6 servers and have ample budget. Which of the following is key for the sales representative to identify?
A. Space requirements
B. Software requirements
C. POWER6 energy requirements
D. Project timing requirements
Answer: B

7. A customer requires the maximum memory per processor on a Power Blade that supports partition mobility. Which Blade server meets these requirements?
A. JS12
B. JS20
C. JS21
D. JS22
Answer: A

8. A customer plans to consolidate several web applications whose workloads change frequently. Upper management is very concerned about data security between applications but is very cost conscious. Which of the following will best meet their requirements?
A. IVM
B. VIOS
C. DLPAR
D. Partition Mobility
Answer: C

9. A distribution company is running Oracle 9i and Solaris 8 on a Sun E10K. The prospect wants to upgrade their technology and lower their TCO. Which of the following is the first thing the sales representative should do to move them to a POWER6 solution?
A. Conduct an Oracle SAR.
B. Offer a proof of concept system
C. Engage the IBM Migration Factory team.
D. Determine if funding and skills are available.
Answer: D

10. Which of the following properly describes the 4-port Ethernet PCI adapter card used in IBM Power Systems servers?
A. A single physical connection with four virtual MAC addresses
B. The four Ethernet connections on the card share a common PCI bus.
C. A single connection provides the virtual bandwidth of four Ethernet cards
D. Four separate LPARs can each use a port on the 4-port Ethernet PCI adapter card.
Answer: B

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Filed under: Nortel — admin @ 3:30 am

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Examsoon
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:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新920-245考试题库)

 
 
Exam : Nortel 920-245
Title : Ethernet Switching

1. You have installed a new Ethernet Switch 460-24T into a customer’s network and are using the QoS Wizard to configure the QoS settings for various IP traffic flows. Which two IP applications can you directly choose in the QoS Wizard to prioritize inbound frames based on traffic type? (Choose two.)
A. E-mail (SMTP)
B. File Transfer (FTP)
C. Multicasting (IGMP)
D. Trivial File Transfer (TFTP)
E. Network Management (SNMP)
Answer: AB

2. Which actions should be performed during a configuration of a QoS policy for a trusted interface?
A. drop traffic to a port
B. change of DSCP value
C. modification of 802.1p value
D. alteration of the drop precedence
Answer: A

3. Which three switches support auto Media Dependent Interface Crossover (MDI/MDIX)? (Choose three.)
A. Ethernet Switch 425
B. Ethernet Switch 450
C. Ethernet Switch 460
D. Ethernet Switch 470
E. Ethernet Routing Switch 5510
Answer: ADE

4. Given the conditions:
Left LED – green
Right LED – flashing green
On an Ethernet Routing Switch 8648TXE/M 10/100 Ethernet I/O module, what is the status of a port that is displaying the LED conditions described above?
A. Link speed is 10 Mbps and the port is disabled.
B. Link speed is 100 Mbps and the port is disabled.
C. Link speed is 10 Mbps and the port is passing traffic.
D. Link speed is 100 Mbps and the port is passing traffic.
Answer: D

5. What is an advantage of using Independent VLAN Learning (IVL) mode over Shared VLAN Learning (SVL) mode on an Ethernet Switch 460-24T-PWR?
A. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) can be disabled.
B. More MAC addresses can be stored with unique forwarding databases.
C. Duplicate MAC addresses can be handled if they are in different VLANs.
D. The port forwarding rate will be greater with unique forwarding databases.
Answer: C

6. When can you obtain and load an image from an external TFTP server through one of the I/O ports?
A. When you invoke the boot (ip address)/<file> command from the Device Manager.
B. When you configure the Ethernet Routing Switch 8600 to boot from the network, then reset.
C. When you invoke the boot (ip address):<file> command from the Command Line Interface (CLI).
D. When you configure the Ethernet Routing Switch 8600 to boot from the network, then recycle power.
Answer: C

7. Which two statements are true regarding Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) Backup? (Choose two.)
A. It must advertise its presence to the network.
B. It must not accept packets addressed to the IP address(s) associated with the virtual router.
C. It must discard packets with a destination Media Access Control (MAC) equal to the virtual router MAC.
D. It must respond to Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) requests for address(s) associated with the virtual router.
Answer: BC

8. Which route type in the Ethernet Routing Switch 8600 routing table provides additional routes for faster convergence in case of network/link failures?
A. best
B. direct
C. MPLS
D. ECMP
Answer: D

9. A customer with an Ethernet Switch 470-24T wants to configure MAC address-based security. Given that they can create up to 10 MAC Destination Addresses (DA) to filter, how are all packets with specified DAs treated?
A. All packets with specified DAs are dropped.
B. All packets with specified DAs are dropped based on ingress port.
C. All packets with specified DAs are dropped based on VLAN membership.
D. All packets with specified DAs are dropped based on source address intrusion.
Answer: A

10. Which Ethernet Routing Switch QoS feature ensures that the lower six egress queues are serviced in a fair, yet weighted manner?
A. WRR
B. WFQ
C. DSCP
D. TCP/UDP
Answer: A

11. An Ethernet Switch 450-24T will be added to an existing stack of two Ethernet Switch 470-24Ts. The software Release running on the Ethernet Switch 450-24T is compatible with the software Release running on the Ethernet Switch 470-24Ts. To complete the stack creation successfully, which two configuration changes are necessary? (Choose two.)
A. Set the Unit Select switch on the Ethernet Switch 450-24T to the "Off" position.
B. Set the Unit Select switch on the Ethernet Switch 450-24T to "Base" ("On" position).
C. Set the Stack Mode for all Ethernet Switch 470-24Ts to Hybrid and then reset the stack.
D. Cable the Ethernet Switch 450-24T into the stack, power off all units, and then power up the stack.
E. Set the Stack Mode for the Base Ethernet Switch 470-24T to Hybrid and leave the other Ethernet Switch 470-24T as Pure.
Answer: AC

12. Click the exhibit button.
Given the following Ethernet Switch 325-24T configuration:
VLAN 10 is a port-based VLAN.
Port 1 is an untagged member of VLAN 10.
Port 5 is a tagged member of VLAN 10.
The device on Port 1 transmits an untagged frame to the device on Port 5.
How will an untagged frame be treated when it reaches Port 5 on this switch?
A. It will be discarded when it is received.
B. It will be placed in a hardware-based queue based on Priority 6. Then it will be tagged, and transmitted out Port 5 with Priority 2.
C. It will be placed in a hardware-based queue based on Priority 6. Then it will be tagged, and transmitted out Port 5 with Priority 6.
D. It will be placed in a hardware-based queue based on Priority 2. Then it will be tagged, and transmitted out Port 5 with Priority 2.
Answer: C

13. In the event of a network failure, a customer requires that an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) interface detect the failure within 30 seconds. Which Ethernet Routing Switch 8600 Command Line Interface (CLI) command must be used to ensure a network failure is detected in the required amount of time?
A. config vlan <vid> ip ospf metric 30
B. config vlan <vid> ip ospf priority 30
C. config vlan <vid> ip ospf hello-interval 30
D. config vlan <vid> ip ospf dead-interval 30
Answer: D

14. If one Multi Link Trunk is being used, how many fewer VLANs would be available on the Ethernet Routing Switch 8600?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: C

15. You need to add a new port on an Ethernet Routing Switch 5510 that will support a new server to an existing VLAN that is a member of an existing Spanning Tree Group (STG). Which action(s) should you perform to accomplish this task?
A. Add the port to the VLAN.
B. Add the port to the VLAN and then manually add the port to the STG.
C. Disable the STG, add the port to the VLAN, and then enable the STG.
D. Remove the VLAN from the STG, add the port to the VLAN, and then add the VLAN to the STG.
Answer: B

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Filed under: Microsoft — admin @ 3:02 am

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Exam : Microsoft 74-674
Title : Delivering Business Value Planning Services
Case1: Woodgrove Bank
COMPANY BACKGROUND
Corporate Information and Physical Locations
Woodgrove Bank is a national financial services institution that operates in over 30 cities across the United States. The company offers investment banking services, has over 140,000 employees, and has five departments.
EXISTING ENVIRONMENT
Existing Business Processes
Woodgrove Bank has the strategic goal of eliminating 25 percent of its current list of 40,000 suppliers. The bank has begun eliminating suppliers based on their prices, redundant product or service offerings, and past supplier performance. The company’s Enterprise Supplier Management (ESM) group manages the supplier elimination process. The group also directly manages the bank’s largest suppliers and provides training material and workshops on supplier management to the company departments.
The Woodgrove Bank ESM group has the following business processes:
The ESM group collects supplier performance data for the 2,000 largest suppliers.
The ESM group’s Supplier Managers use supplier performance data to directly manage the 40 largest suppliers.
The department managers directly manage all other suppliers.
The ESM group provides performance data on other suppliers to the department managers by request. Raw performance data is organized in spreadsheets that are sent via e-mail.
The ESM group’s Business Analysts collect and store supplier performance data in multiple spreadsheets. The spreadsheets are stored on the Analysts’ local computers and contain many different types of supplier performance metrics.
Each quarter, the ESM group surverys the department managers to discover the level of satisfaction they have for each of their suppliers. Business Analysts distribute the surveys via e-mail then manually consolidate the survey results.
Existing Technology Infrastructure
Woodgrove Bank has the following software deployed on all desktop computers:
Microsoft Office 2003 Professional
Windows XP Professional
Woodgrove Bank has the following software deployed on all network servers:
Windows Server 2008
Windows SharePoint Services 3.0
Microsoft SQL Server 2008
Microsoft Office Project Server
The Woodgrove Bank ESM group has the following technology infrastructure:
A single IT Specialist who has minimal database application development experience.
Additional servers available for the deployment of new technology solutions.
Labor Costs
The following table illustrates labor costs for salaried stall.
BUSINESS REQUIREMENTS
Problem Statements
Woodgrove Bank has identified the following business problems:
The process of manually entering data for suppliers in spreadsheets is time-consuming for the business analysts.
Supplier data is stored in multiple files, formats, and locations.
There is very little sharing of valuable supplier performance data outside of the ESM group.
The ESM group has a fixed number of employees and very limited budget.
Business Goals
Bank executives formed the ESM group to promote best practices in supplier management throughout the entire company.
The ESM group has the following business goals:
Build a new Supplier Performance Data Management service to distribute supplier performance informantion across all departments.
Provide documentation to show departments how to best use company-wide supplier performance information when negotiating individually with suppliers.
Minimize ESM group operating expenses by eliminating the procurement of additional software licenses.
INTERVIEWEES
ESM Director
The ESM Director is a business decision maker who manages the day-to-day operations of the ESM group.
The ESM Director best understands how the ESM group fits within the bank’s corporate strategy.
Supplier Managers
The Supplier Manager is a role within the ESM group.
Supplier Managers manage the 40 largest suppliers.
Supplier Managers best understand how supplier performance data is used to manage suppliers.
Business Analysts
Business Analysts collect and store supplier performance datA. Business Analysts query the distributed spreadsheets by request from the Supplier Managers.
Business Analysts provide insight into manual data managemt processes.
Department Managers
Department Mangers are responsible for managing their respective supplier relationships.
Department Managers provide insight into how supplier performance data is used for supplier management at the dapartment level.

1. You need to identify a solution to meet Woodgrove Banks business goals while minimizing its software costs. Which solution should you identify?
A. A supplier performance report collaboration portal that uses Windows SharePoint Services and includes automated review and approve workflows
B. A supplier performance data management solution that uses built-in Microsoft SQL Server functionality, which can be easily adopted by the departments
C. A project portfolio solution that uses Microsoft Office Project and Microsoft Office Project Server, which includes common resource tables and project status reporting templates
D. A custom Microsoft Office PerformancePoint Server solution that fully automates supplier performance data management and reporting and enhances management of the 40 largest suppliers
Answer: B

2. You need to document which key technology infrastructure issues prevent the ESM group from meeting its goals. Which issue should you choose?
A. Data entry is performed manually.
B. Static spreadsheet-based are used to capture data
C. Supplier data is improperly updated in Project Server.
D. Workflows are undefined in Windows SharePoint Services.
Answer: B

3. A portion of the current state business process for Woodgrove Bank is shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
This portion of the business process is repeated every quarter for all 40 suppliers that the ESM group manages directly and is completed by one business manager and one supplier manager.
You need to identify the total labor costs the bank would save by removing lines 2.8 and 2.11 from the process.
What are the annual total savings?
A. $18,000
B. $72,000
C. $96,000
D. $144,000
Answer: B

4. You are evaluating a Microsoft Office PerformancePoint Server 2007 solution for Woodgrove Bank. You need to identify the gap that exists between the banks current state and its future state based on the maturity level of the current infrastructure. Which gap should you identify?
A. Desktop application deployment
B. Hardware requirements
C. Network architecture
D. Software licensing
Answer: D

5. You propose a solution to Woodgrove Bank. The bank responds that the proposed solution is too expensive and will take too long to implement. You need to identify which negotiation points will likely convince Woodgrove Bank to purchase the proposed solution. Which two negotiation points should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Rely on the customer for project management
B. Stage the solution rollout so that value is added incrementally
C. Incorporate more of the customers own IT staff into the solution rollout
D. Rewrite the statement of work (SOW) to narrow the scope of the solution
Answer: BD

6. You need to identify the most relevant value proposition statement for Woodgrove Bank executives. Which value proposition statement should you identify?
A. Implementing the proposed solution will provide greater visibility into supplier performance across the company.
B. Implementing the proposed solution will reduce group operating expenses and improve the quality of supplier performance reports.
C. Implementing the proposed solution will reduce labor time associated with data management, enabling them to improve supplier selection.
D. Implementing the proposed solution will give department managers a tool to better manage their suppliers, reducing the overall cost structure of the bank.
Answer: C

7. You are evaluating a supplier performance data management solution. You need to identify the greatest adoption risk that would result from implementing the proposed solution. What should you identify?
A. The ESM Director refuses to fund the solution.
B. Supplier Managers resist the organizational changes within the ESM group that result from the solution.
C. Business Analysts refuse to use the solution, preferring a workaround that employs their existing methods.
D. The value of the solution is inadequately communicated to Department Managers, so they never use it for supplier management.
Answer: D

8. You need to identify the most relevant business impact to Woodgrove Bank based on its current business processes. Which business impact should you identify?
A. Legal risks caused by accidental disclosure of proprietary contractual data
B. Reported instances of inaccurate or outdated information in supplier performance reports
C. Delays in responding to supplier performance information requests from various departments
D. Weakened bargaining position caused by lack of company-wide supplier performance reporting
Answer: D

9. You need to create a current state business process diagram. You have a process diagram that describes the survey sub-process as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to identify which two steps most likely complete the diagram.
Which two steps should you choose? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Begins completing survey.
B. Manually consolidates survey results.
C. Creates supplier performance survey form.
D. Calculates supplier key performance indicators (KPI).
Answer: AB

10. You plan to recommend a five-day business value planning services (BVPS) workshop to Woodgrove Bank. You need to recommend a component to include in the workshop. Which component should you recommend?
A. Develop a business case.
B. Create a proof of concept pilot.
C. Develop Windows SharePoint Services applications.
D. Build out an end-user training plan and training content.
Answer: A

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免费000-094学习资料

Filed under: IBM — admin @ 2:33 am

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Exam : IBM 000-094
Title : Test094,App-Dev w/ WebSphere Integration Developer V6.0.1

1. While mapping an Order business object from a source system to an Inventory business object of a target system, a developer discovers that custom mapping logic is required to perform the required mapping. Which of the following statements describes a valid approach that the developer can take, if any?
A. Use a submap to invoke the custom code.
B. Use a Custom Callout to invoke the custom code.
C. Use a Java parameter map to invoke the custom code.
D. This cannot be done because custom mappings are not supported.
Answer: C

2. A process contains an invoke activity with the continue on error checkbox selected. This long-running process fails and no fault handler exists to catch the fault. The business process engine will do which of the following?
A. Place the activity in a stopped state.
B. Place the process in a stopped state.
C. Create an administrative task for the administrator so that he/she can correct the error.
D. Create a fault representing the failure and raise it to a higher scope.
Answer: D

3. A developer is building an application for a travel agency. The travel agency will receive calls from customers to obtain quotes for travel. The customers will often need many days to deliberate before they are ready to book a trip. The application should save the customer information and quote that was gathered during the initial call so that this processing does not need to be repeated. What is the most appropriate approach for the developer to handle this type of scenario in a business process?
A. Add an event handler to create another entry point into the process.
B. Store the quote, wait, and add a human task to handle the reply.
C. Add another receive into the process that will be invoked.
D. Add another receive into the process that will be invoked and add a correlation set.
Answer: D

4. A complex long running business process contains several business processes that will need to be versioned over time. The integration developer decides to break the complex process into a parent controlling process and child processes which use late binding. The developer wants to leverage the late binding capabilities of business processes executing in WebSphere Process Server. After breaking the complex process into a parent controlling process and smaller processes, what step should be taken next?
A. Add the processes to the assembly diagram and wire the processes together using the reference and interface nodes.
B. Add the processes to the assembly diagram and wire the processes together using a selector between the reference and interface nodes of the process.
C. Modify the Process Template property of the parent process to include the name of the child process. Add the processes to the assembly diagram but do not wire the parent reference to the child process interface node.
D. Modify the Process Template property of the parent process to include the name of the child process. Add the processes to the assembly diagram and then the parent reference must be wired to the child process interface node.
Answer: C

5. Given the following configuration in a short running business process:
{Note: Refer to Exhibit_2G01 to answer question}
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The snippet will run in a new transaction.
B. There will be a commit just before the snippet runs.
C. No commit will take place before the snippet runs.
D. A commit will take place before and after the snippet runs.
Answer: C

6. Composite state machines are used to do which of the following?
A. Decompose a complex state machine diagram into an easy to comprehend hierarchy of state machines.
B. Decompose a complex state machine diagram into an easy to comprehend peer set of state machines.
C. Define a complex state machine diagram within a single easy to understand diagram.
D. Define a complex state machine diagram using additional building blocks not available in normal state machines.
Answer: A

7. As part of a large integration project, the solution calls for an application to use a resource adapter. While running the Enterprise Service Discovery Wizard, the integration developer is asked whether to Deploy connector with module. A major concern centers around future upgrading of adapters used by multiple modules. How should the integration developer configure Deploy connector with module? (Note: Adapter==Connector)
A. Deploy the adapter with the module.
B. Deploy the adapter in a separate module.
C. Deploy the adapter both in this module for use by this application and in a module by itself for use by other applications.
D. It does not make a difference where the adapter is deployed since the adapter upgrade wizard will walk the developer through the process and upgrade all selected instances of the adapter.
Answer: B

8. Which of the following should a developer do when using a data map for mapping business data from a member of a complex type to a simple type?
A. Write an XPATH statement to pull the data from the source using a move parameter mapping.
B. Use an extract parameter mapping between the source and target interfaces.
C. Use a move parameter mapping to move the data from the source to the target interface.
D. Create an assign parameter mapping to move the data from the source interface to the simple type.
Answer: B

9. Given the following process fragment:
{Note: Refer to Exhibit_2A03 to answer question}
If the RollTwoDice service returns a value of 12, then which activities will execute?
A. GiveMoney, TakeMoney, Terminate, GoHome
B. GiveMoney, Terminate, GoHome
C. GiveMoney, TakeMoney, Terminate
D. GiveMoney, Terminate
Answer: D

10. How should a developer invoke the CurrencyConvertor HTTP web service asynchronously in this module, if possible at all?
{*Note: Refer to Exhibit_3B01_Interface AND Exhibit_3B01_Assembly Diagram to answer question}
A. Update the Binding properties of the Import to specify the Invocation style is Asynchronous.
B. Specify the Preferred interaction style is Asynchronous in the details of the Import.
C. Ensure the Invoke activity specifies No response for the Response variable.
D. This service cannot be called asynchronously.
Answer: D

11. {*Note: Refer to Exhibit_2C05 to answer question}
Based upon the figure, which of the following statements can be made if this stand-alone process were to roll back?
A. Roll back is a feature only supported in a long-running process.
B. Compensation would take place due to the compensation sphere setting.
C. No compensation would take place due to the compensation sphere setting.
D. No compensation would take place due to the lack of compensation handlers.
Answer: C

12. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the Custom Mediation primitive?
A. The operation that is called must be a one-way operation.
B. If Root is specified to be / then the WSDL operation signature must accept a complete SMO Structure.
C. If Root is specified to be / body then the WSDL operation must accept a message body that matches that of the input terminal of the mediation primitive.
D. The WSDL operation must produce a message body that matches the structure specified for the output terminal of the mediation primitive.
Answer: A

13. If a developer designs a mediation flow and leaves an output terminal unwired at runtime, the output terminal stops the path in the flow:
A. and generates an exception.
B. and generates an exception, and then consumes the message.
C. without generating an exception and the message is consumed.
D. without generating an exception and does not consume the message.
Answer: C

14. Which of the following statements accurately describes the implications of the following assembly wiring?
{*Note: Refer to Exhibit_2L01 to answer question}
A. The configuration is correct as it is.
B. The wiring is incomplete. There should be no unconnected elements.
C. The diagram is incorrect because an export cannot be connected directly to an export.
D. The assembly is not correct as is, but it can be corrected by removing one of the Java components.
Answer: A

15. Given the following configuration for and assuming the incoming data in of Object type:
{Note: Refer to Exhibit_3A01 to answer question}
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The binding will fail because the data type needs to be changed to com.ibm.websphere.sca.jms.data.impl.JMSDataBindingImplXML.
B. There are no issues with the current configuration if the configuration is left as is.
C. The binding will fail at runtime because the JNDI name is missing.
D. More fields need to be displayed on the JMS Import Binding tab in order to determine if the configuration is correct.
Answer: B

16. A developer needs to invoke an external web service from business process. Which statement accurately describes an action that the developer must take?
A. Create an export in the web project containing the web service.
B. Create an export in the module where the business process resides.
C. Copy the wsdl file describing the external service into the module where the process resides.
D. Copy the wsdl file describing the business process into the project containing the web service.
Answer: C

17. The Message Logger primitive logs a copy of the message to a database for future retrieval or audit. How should a developer specify that the body of the message be logged to the database?
A. Root /
B. Root / context
C. Root / body
D. Custom XPath
Answer: C

18. {*Note: Refer to Exhibit_2D03 to answer question}
The figure shows a business process that contains three invoke activities within a scope. The fault handler only contains a single compensate activity that does not specify a target activity. Both debit A and credit B have completed successfully before record raises a fault. Which of the following will happen when the fault is caught by the fault handler?
A. Without the target activity selected, no compensation would take place.
B. Only the ‘record’ compensation handler would be triggered.
C. The compensation handler of debit A is triggered and then the compensation handler of credit B.
D. The compensation handler of credit B is triggered and then the compensation handler of debit A.
Answer: D

19. An ‘onEvent’ event handler is added on the process. The first activity in the event handler is a Java snippet that prints data to the console. An event is sent to the process, but the output is never printed to the console. Which of the following best explains why the snippet is never invoked?
A. The event handler was added to the wrong invoke activity.
B. The scope is no longer executing.
C. An invalid timeout value was specified in the event handler.
D. An event handler is currently being executed in the process instance.
Answer: B

20. A developer wants to use the Visual Snippet editor to test a string value to see if it begins with a specific substring value. A standard visual snippet does not exist for this function. What should the developer do next?
A. Switch to a java snippet and implement the function using java code string functions.
B. Select a java visual snippet and locate the appropriate java string function.
C. Use the java shell snippet to call the java string method from the visual snippet.
D. Click "Open Java Editor" and implement the function using java code string functions.
Answer: B

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Exam : Oracle 1Z0-131
Title : Build Internet Applications i

1. In Form Builder you attempt to compile a trigger. You receive a compilation error that gives no clear indication of the problem. What are two likely causes? (Choose two.)
A. dividing by zero
B. missing semicolon
C. mismatched quotes
D. mistyped variable name
E. trigger defined on wrong item
F. trigger defined at wrong level
Answer: BC

2. You are creating the ORDERS form that contains a text item called Date_Ordered. How could you ensure that when a new record is entered, the Date_Ordered item displays the current date in DD-MON-YYYY format?
A. In the Date_Ordered Item Property Palette, set the Initial Value property to $$date$$.
B. In the Date_Ordered Item Property Palette, set the Default Value property to SYSDATE.
C. You must use a Pre-Insert trigger to accomplish this task.
D. You must use a Pre-Commit trigger to accomplish this task.
Answer: A

3. You are creating summary items that summarize the same item in a data block by performing different functions, such as Sum, Avg, Max, and Min. Design rules require you to place summary items in a control block. Which properties should be set in the control and data blocks to enable your task?
A. The Single Record property must be set to Yes for the control block, and the Query All Records property must be set to Yes for the data block.
B. The Number of Records Displayed property must be set to Yes for the control block, and the Number of Records Buffered property must be set to All for the data block.
C. The Query All Records property must be set to Yes for the data block, and the Precompile Summaries property must be set to Yes for the control block.
D. The Query All Records property must be set to Yes for the control block, and the Precompile Summaries property must be set to Yes for the data block.
Answer: A

4. Which two data block properties can be set to abort a long running query? (Choose two.)
A. Number of Records Buffered
B. Numbers of Records Displayed
C. Query Array Size
D. Maximum Query Time
E. Query All Records
F. Maximum Records Fetched
Answer: DF

5. You have created a form that has a block to create an address and perform a mail merge with a selected Word document. You would like to use this block in other forms. How could you package this block and its canvas for reuse?
A. Smart Class
B. Object Group
C. Record Group
D. Property Class
E. PL/SQL Library
Answer: B

6. You have written some generic PL/SQL code which loops through the invoked form, getting and setting the global variables in the form. Which two built-ins would you use in this code to get and set these variables and their values? (Choose two.)
A. COPY
B. NAME_IN
C. GET_ITEM_PROPERTY
D. GET_BLOCK_PROPERTY
E. GET_PARAMETER_LIST
F. GET_APPLICATION_PROPERTY
Answer: AB

7. Which two operations create a text item? (Choose two.)
A. use the Create icon in the Layout Editor
B. convert an existing item into a text item by setting its Item Type property
C. use the text item tool in the Object Navigator
D. use the text item tool in the Layout Editor
E. select Field—>New—>Text Item from the menu
Answer: BD

8. Which built-in allows you to dynamically change the alert message text?
A. SET_ALERT_MESSAGE
B. SET_ALERT_PROPERTY
C. CHANGE_ALERT_PROPERTY
D. CHANGE_MESSAGE_ALERT
Answer: B

9. You created the EMP_DATA data block in the EMPLOYEE form based on all the columns of the EMP table. After viewing the prototype, users are asking that you remove the SALARY column from the layout. This column is used in the data block to perform bonus calculations.
How would you remove this column from the layout while leaving it in the data block?
A. You must delete the EMP_DATA data block and recreate it.
B. Select the Salary item in the Layout Editor and press DELETE.
C. You must remove the column from the data block to remove it from the layout.
D. Select the frame surrounding the EMP_DATA data block in the Layout Editor, click the Layout Wizard tool, and remove the SALARY column from the Displayed Items list.
E. Select the EMP_DATA data block in the Object Navigator, choose Tools->Data Block Wizard, and remove the SALARY column from the included list. The SALARY column will automatically be removed from the layout.
F. Double-click the EMP_DATA data block in the Object Navigator to launch the Data Block Wizard, remove the SALARY column from the included columns, enter the Layout Wizard, and remove the SALARY column from the Displayed Items list.
Answer: D

10. Which property type can be created by overriding a property set by a property class?
A. Block
B. Variant
C. Item
D. Inherited
Answer: B

11. The EMPLOYEE form contains the CV_SALARY, CV_EMP, and CV_HELP content canvases. Each canvas is displayed in its own window. How could you toggle between the CV_SALARY and CV_EMP canvases without closing the CV_HELP canvas?
A. Create the CV_HELP canvas in a modal window.
B. Create the CV_SALARY and CV_EMP canvases in modal windows.
C. Create all three canvases in modeless windows.
D. A canvas must be dismissed before another canvas can become active.
Answer: C

12. Which two item properties’ settings affect the standard checks performed during item validation? (Choose two.)
A. Font Name
B. Format Mask
C. Conceal Data
D. Case Restriction
E. Lowest Allowed Value
F. Number of Items Displayed
Answer: BE

13. You are customizing default functionality of an image item so that the image displays when a user single-clicks the item. Which trigger would you use to accomplish the task?
A. When-New-Item-Instance
B. When-Image-Activated
C. When-Image-Pressed
D. When-Validate-Item
Answer: C

14. Click the Exhibit button.
All items have been created with default properties. There is a Pre-Text-Item trigger on Item B with the following code:
if :blockname.item_b > ‘10′ then
raise form_trigger_failure;
end if;
The cursor is in Item A. You press [Tab]. Which statement is true?
A. Input focus will change to Item C.
B. External navigation will not occur.
C. Internal navigation will not occur.
D. The form will exit due to a fatal error.
E. A message indicating navigation failure will automatically be displayed.
Answer: B

15. Which built-in subprogram can be used to create global variables?
A. NAME_IN
B. COPY
C. DEFAULT_VALUE
D. LIST_VALUES
Answer: C

16. How could you associate a data block with more than one frame?
A. Use the Layout Wizard in reentrant mode to associate the data block with an additional frame.
B. Alter the Frame value in the Property Palette for the data block.
C. Use the Data Block Wizard in reentrant mode to associate the data block with an additional frame.
D. A data block can be associated with only one frame.
Answer: D

17. You created a form that has two data blocks. Which two default navigation methods can a user employ to move the cursor from the first block to the second block? (Choose two.)
A. Press the [NEXT BLOCK] function key.
B. Click an item in the second block with the mouse.
C. Click the single right-arrow icon on the menu toolbar.
D. Right-click an item in the first block, and choose Next Block from the pop-up menu.
Answer: AB

18. You want to capture the username and password of the current user. Which built-in subprogram can you use?
A. GET_APPLICATION_PROPERTY
B. GET_RELATION_PROPERTY
C. GET_VIEW_PROPERTY
D. GET_FORM_PROPERTY
Answer: A

19. Which built-in subprogram can you use to navigate to the instance of the current item in the previous record?
A. PREVIOUS_RECORD
B. UP
C. SCROLL_UP
D. PREVIOUS_BLOCK
Answer: B

20. You can use a When-List-Activated trigger to trap a user selection. For which list item style can you do this?
A. T-list
B. pop-list
C. combo box
D. any style
Answer: A

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Exam : IBM 000-891
Title : IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.1

1. Which XSL if statement checks for the existence of a homepage attribute within an STS Universal User XML structure?
A. <xsl:if test="//stsuuser:AttributeList/stsuuser:Attribute[attr='homepage']">
B. <xsl:if test="//stsuuser:AttributeList/stsuuser:Attribute[@name='homepage']">
C. <xsl:if-exists="//stsuuser:AttributeList/stsuuser:Attribute/custom:Homepage">
D. <xsl:if-exists="//stsuuser:AttributeList/stsuuser:Attribute[@name='homepage'])>
Answer: B

2. Which security token may carry user attribute information as part of the defined token format?
A. Kerberos
B. RACF Token
C. SAML Assertion
D. Username Token
Answer: C

3. Click the Exhibit button.
You want to use TCPMON between the two WS-Provisioning Service instances.
How do you configure the endpoint of the partner WS-Provisioning service (i.e., the destination of step 3) so that TCPMON can be used?
A. modify the ITFIMClientIDI.properties file
B. modify the ITFIMClientScript.constants file
C. use the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager Console to modify a custom runtime parameter
D. use the WebSphere Application Server Administration Console to modify the WS-Provisioning application properties
Answer: C

4. What is the default trace file (for Linux) that is used for the initial debugging of IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager Runtime?
A. /opt/IBM/FIM/logs/< ITFIM Domain Name>/tivoli-common/FBT/logs/msg.log
B. /opt/IBM/FIM/logs/< ITFIM Domain Name>/tivoli-common/FBT/logs/trace.log
C. /opt/IBM/WebSphere/AppServer/profiles/<servername>/logs/<profile>/trace.log
D. /opt/IBM/WebSphere/AppServer/profiles/<servername>/logs/<profile>/SystemOut.log
Answer: B

5. RBTelco is a large multinational company that outsources health care benefit management to RBBenefits. RBTelco employees access RBBenefits resources through an authenticate-able account at each company. RBBenefit and RBTelco will use SAML V1.0.
Which IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business (ITAMeb) and IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager (ITFIM) components are required to be installed at RBTelco?
A. TAMeb Runtime, TAMeb Policy Server, TAMeb Authorization Server, TAMeb WebSEAL Server, ITFIM Runtime and Management Services, ITFIM Management Console
B. TAMeb Runtime, TAMeb Policy Server, TAMeb Authorization Server, TAMeb WebSEAL Server, ITFIM Runtime and Management Services, ITFIM Management Console, WebSEAL Application Developer Kit
C. TAMeb Runtime, TAMeb Policy Server, TAMeb Authorization Server, TAMeb Java Runtime Environment, TAMeb WebSEAL Server, ITFIM Runtime and Management Services, ITFIM Management Console, WebSEAL Application Developer Kit
D. TAMeb Runtime, TAMeb Policy Server, TAMeb Authorization Server, TAMeb Java Runtime Environment, TAMeb WebSEAL Server, ITFIM Runtime and Management Services, ITFIM Management Console, ITFIM Demonstration Scenarios, WebSEAL Application Developer Kit
Answer: A

6. Which two tasks are required to install Service Integration Bus Web Services? (Choose two.)
A. install the Resource Adapter
B. configure SOAP listener port
C. deploy the Service Integration Bus application
D. install the Service Data Objects (SDO) Repository
E. create a new WebSphere Application Server profile
Answer: AD

7. Which two software components are prerequisite products for the Common Audit and Reporting Service (CARS) event server? (Choose two.)
A. IBM DB2 Server
B. Crystal Enterprise Server
C. IBM Tivoli Directory Server
D. IBM WebSphere Application Server
E. IBM Tivoli Access Manager Authorization Server
Answer: AD

8. What are two functions of a custom mapping module? (Choose two.)
A. records the token assertion
B. maps a STSUUSER input to a SAML token
C. looks up attributes in an external data source
D. maps a user’s alias during the account linkage operation in SAML 2.0 and Liberty 1.2 protocol
E. maps a GUI XML attributes into UI controls that are used by the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager Console to collect the input data
Answer: AC

9. Which statement is true about a Dynamic Chain Selection Module instance?
A. It is the first module in the partner module chain in Web Services Security Management (WSSM).
B. It is the last module in the partner module chain in WSSM.
C. It is the first module in the application module chain for partner.
D. It is the last module in the application module chain for the partner.
Answer: B

10. When recovering from a disaster, the backup and restore operation you use is similar to the export/import configuration procedure, with one additional step. Which additional step must you take when recovering from a disaster?
A. A new WebSphere profile is required to restore the configuration.
B. The restored system requires the IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business (TAMeb) JRTE to be manually configured against the WebSphere’s Java Runtime to allow the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager (ITFIM) Runtime to function properly.
C. The ITFIM Domain needs to be created manually within the Integrated Solution Console.
D. The ITFIM Runtime instance needs to be re-registered with the TAMeb policy server by running the SvrSslCfg command.
Answer: C

11. What limitations exist for a SAML Partner Provider ID configured at the Identity Provider?
A. The Provider ID can be any string.
B. The Provider ID can only include alphanumeric characters.
C. The Provider ID must match the prefix of Target URLs in SSO requests.
D. The Provider ID must match the Succinct ID configured at the Service Provider.
Answer: C

12. You have successfully configured EchoClient and EchoApplication secured by Web Services Security Management (WSSM). You want to test that authorization is correctly being performed on the request. Which technique would allow you to do this?
A. stop all running instances of PDACLD
B. log in to the EchoClient as a different IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business (TAMeb) user
C. change the TAMeb ACL policy applying to the Web Services namespace
D. update the authorization module configuration in the Trust Service using the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager Console
Answer: C

13. Click the Exhibit button.
When planning for secure communications between a partner and the Point of Contact, at what level is the SSL connection defined?
A. each individual partner within a single federation
B. all federations configured for an instance of IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager (ITFIM)
C. each individual federation within an instance of ITFIM
D. all federation functionality fronted by a single instance of IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business WebSEAL
Answer: C

14. What are three functions of a WebSphere Node Agent? (Choose three.)
A. monitors performance
B. manages JVM memory
C. serves J2EE applications
D. manages the deployment manager
E. manages configuration synchronization
F. routes administrative requests to servers
Answer: AEF

15. Which utility is used to configure the WebSEAL Server once the files are installed?
A. pdadmin
B. pdconfig
C. web_config
D. config_web
Answer: B

16. When designing a system to use WS-Federation, which browser Single Sign-On (SSO) method should be used?
A. Browser GET
B. Browser POST
C. Browser Artifact
D. Browser Response
Answer: B

17. What is the default message level configured for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager?
A. error messages only
B. disable all messages
C. error and warning messages only
D. info, error and warning messages
Answer: D

18. What must be done after adding a partner to a Federated-Single Sign-On (F-SSO) Federation to allow the partner’s users to Single Sign-On (SSO)?
A. restart WebSEAL
B. enable the Partner
C. stop/restart IBM Tivoli Directory Server
D. restart Integrated Solutions Console (ISC)
Answer: B

19. The configuration of a Web Services Security management (WSSM) Partner allows for the specification of XSL mapping rules. What is the input and output of these XSL mapping rules?
A. The input to the XSL mapping rules of a WSSM Partner is the binary security token as received on the Web Service request. The output of the mapping rules is a new security token ready for use by the Web Service application.
B. The input to the XSL mapping rules of a WSSM Partner is an STSUniveralUser XML document created from the security token received on the Web Service request. The output of the mapping rules is an arbitrary collection of attributes that will be made available to the Web Services application.
C. The input to the XSL mapping rules of a WSSM Partner is an STSUniveralUser XML document created from the security token received on the Web Service request. The output of the mapping rules is a new STSUniversalUser XML document that represents the security token required by the application.
D. The input to the XSL mapping rules of a WSSM Partner is an STSUniveralUser XML document created from the security token received on the Web Service request. The output of the mapping rules is an IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business credential that will be used to authorize the partner’s access to the Web Service application.
Answer: C

20. Click the Exhibit button.
If an invalid username and password is entered on the EchoClient, which log files will be the first to record this (assuming all components have necessary logging and tracing enabled)?
A. the PDACLD authentication audit log
B. the EchoClient log during token generation
C. IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager (ITFIM) tracing on AppSrv01 during token validation
D. ITFIM tracing on AppSrv03 during an attempted JAAS login
Answer: A

2009年01月30日

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