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Exam : Oracle 1Z0-211
Title : Oracle 11i General Ledger Fundamentals

1. One of your co-workers, Tim, is working to define and develop Financial Statement Generator reports where the budget amounts and actual amounts would display on the report per period. Tim comes to you and says that he has defined an FSG report according to the client’s requirements; the actual amounts are correctly shown, but the problem is that budget amounts are not showing up on the report. What is your response?
A. Budget status is Frozen.
B. The last fiscal year of the budget is Closed.
C. The first fiscal year of the budget was never opened.
D. There is some issue with the assignment of accounts to the budget organization.
E. The budget name needs to be associated with the row set through control values.
Answer: E

2. What is the effect of summary accounts on the efficiency of the posting process?
A. Use of summary accounts increases the efficiency of the posting process.
B. Use of summary accounts decreases the efficiency of the posting process.
C. There is no effect, because summary accounts do not use the posting process to accumulate values.
D. Use of summary accounts neither increases nor decreases the efficiency of the posting process.
Answer: B

3. Select the three true statements about mapping rules. (Choose three.)
A. A rollup rule tells General Ledger what detail level of information to transfer and how to roll that information up to the parent.
B. There are only three rollup rules: 1. Transfer Level Detail – Using Detail Ranges; 2. Transfer Level Detail – Using Parent; 3. Transfer Level Summary – Using Parent
C. You can define a combination of segment values and account rules.
D. There are only two mapping rule actions: 1. Copy Value from; 2. Assign Value from
E. Mapping sets enable you transfer data from multiple subsidiaries simultaneously.
Answer: ACE

4. CW Inc. has many business units set up as company values in the Company (Balancing) segment for three sets of books: Canada, U.S. and Brazil. The sets of books share a common chart of accounts (COA) structure. The COA structure also has an Intercompany segment (with Intercompany Qualifier) that uses the same value set as the Company segment. Which three options will best use GL Intercompany functionality, given the multiple sets of books that share a common COA? (Choose three.)
A. Enable the Balance Intercompany Journal option when defining each set of books.
B. Enable security for the Company segment, and define appropriate security rules, and assign them to the responsibility for each set of books.
C. Enable the profile option that automatically creates intercompany accounting across sets of books.
D. Create a clearing company for each set of books to handle many-to-many intercompany accounting in each set of books.
E. Enable security for the Company and Intercompany segments, and define appropriate security rules, and assign them to the responsibility for each set of books.
Answer: ABD

5. All of the manual journal entries are defaulting to a non current period. Which step was omitted from the accounting cycle?
A. Update Period
B. Post Journal Entries
C. Consolidate Financials
D. Reverse Journal Entries
E. Translated Foreign Balances
Answer: A

6. An auditor has asked the payables manager to provide detail that supports the Oracle Payables Liability amount listed on the balance sheet. Which report would best meet the auditor’s request?
A. Posted Invoice Register
B. Accrual Reconciliation Report
C. Accounts Payable Trial Balance
D. Payables Account Analysis Report
E. Payable Accounting Entries Report
Answer: C

7. XYZ Company has many Financial Statement Generator reports created to produce Profit & Loss statements and Balance Sheet reports. Occasionally XYZ has a need to run a report that is slightly different than the standard ones that are already created. Which two types of changes could XYZ make using the Row Order feature? (Choose two.)
A. add a new calculation
B. sort based on column values
C. display segment values and descriptions
D. change how rounding options are performed
Answer: BC

8. XYZ Enterprise has two diverse business operations in retail stores and services. It has five legal entities in Canada and five in the United States for both operations. The fiscal year end is the same for all the legal entities with 12 monthly periods. However, XYZ wants to use a 4-5-4 accounting calendar for its retail operations and a calendar-month accounting calendar for the services operations. XYZ also wants to use a single chart of accounts structure. Which five items must XYZ define to meet the minimum setup steps that are required for the sets of books for all legal entities? (Choose five.)
A. two sets of books
B. four sets of books
C. three sets of books
D. account combinations
E. one accounting calendar
F. two accounting calendars
G. chart of accounts structure
H. period types or use seeded ones
I. enable seeded CAD and USD currencies
Answer: BFGHI

9. BK Corporation has a legal entity in each of its business operations in the United States, Canada, Malaysia, Singapore, and Italy. The controller in Italy advises that the corporation must use the Italian statutory accounts as its natural accounts. The corporation decides to define five sets of books (one for each country) but wants to use a single, global chart of accounts structure. Choose a possible design (for the sets of books) that uses a single, global chart of accounts structure, and also meets the Italian controller’s requirement.
A. The chart of accounts structure contains an extra segment for Italy.
B. The list of values in the Account segment includes a range reserved for Italy.
C. The length of the Account segment for Italy is different from that for the other countries.
D. The chart of accounts structure uses a different Value Set for the Account segment for Italy.
E. The chart of accounts structure for Italy uses Account values prefixed with a special character.
Answer: B

10. In the course of implementing General Ledger, you and your customer have created a number of Financial Statement Generator reports in a test environment. They have been tested and you are now ready to create these same reports in a production environment. You want to run the Financial Statement Generator transfer program. What is the minimum necessary to run this program? (Choose two.)
A. Database links must be defined.
B. Same set of books must be defined.
C. Same row and column sets must exist in production.
Answer: AB

11. Revenue accounts can be viewed only by the head of the Finance team, who has a GL Superuser responsibility. She has successfully created a standard Profit and Loss statement for the company. Another member of the department with a General Ledger Supervisor responsibility has been asked to run the standard Profit and Loss statement for Feb-06. The report shows only the expenses accounts. Which two steps should she perform so that the Profit and Loss statement will run successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Recreate the Profit and Loss under her own responsibility.
B. Ask to have security removed from her responsibility.
C. Perform an on-line inquiry to get the revenue balances.
D. Ask to have the profile option FSG: Enforce Segment Value Security changed to No.
Answer: BD

12. For each subledger there should be one _____.
A. Journal Source
B. Journal Category
C. Journal Type
D. Account Type
Answer: A

13. Select the two minimum set up steps for intercompany accounting. (Choose two.)
A. Define a clearing company for all many-to-many intercompany journals.
B. Include an Intercompany segment in the chart of accounts structure.
C. Enable the Intercompany Qualifier for the Intercompany segment.
D. Enable Balance Intercompany Journal when defining the set of books.
E. Set up intercompany accounts for every journal source and journal category for intercompany transactions.
F. Set up intercompany accounts for journal source and journal category of Other.
G. Define a value set for the Company and Intercompany segments.
H. Define a journal source and a journal category for Intercompany.
Answer: DF

14. Which two statements would be true when helping a customer make implementation decisions for General Ledger? (Choose two)
A. Integration issues can be minimized.
B. Cost of upgrades would not be affected.
C. Patching cannot be done on a customized implementation.
D. Training can be standardized when Oracle is implemented without customization.
E. All Oracle subledger journals go directly to General Ledger to overcome interface problems.
Answer: AD

15. In creating a report, what is true about the column set? (Choose two.)
A. Formats can be set for each column.
B. Accounts cannot be assigned to a column set.
C. Calculations can be performed using columns.
D. Seeded column sets provided by Oracle must be used.
Answer: AC

16. Which two are true statements regarding elimination? (Choose two.)
A. You can define balancing options for eliminating entries.
B. Currency is an optional component when defining an elimination set.
C. You can define an elimination set to contain a single elimination entry.
D. You must specify an elimination company in the Elimination Sets window.
Answer: BD

17. XYZ Corporation has two sets of books and six inventory organizations. What is the minimum number of times that XYZ needs to run the general ledger interface in order to close the inventory at the end of each accounting cycle?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
E. 10
F. 12
Answer: C

18. The Treeline Company is getting ready to complete its month-end process. It needs to create a profit and loss statement and it wants to use the Financial Statement Generator feature to create the report. Which two elements are required to create the report? (Choose two.)
A. Row Set
B. Report Set
C. Workbook
D. Column Set
E. Content Set
Answer: AD

19. Which statement is correct about the differences between the functionalities of parent accounts and summary accounts?
A. Summary accounts slow down the generation of Financial Statement Generators, whereas parent accounts will help generate quicker results.
B. Summary accounts speed up the posting process, whereas parent accounts require additional time for the posting process.
C. Summary accounts cannot be used in budget formulas, whereas parent accounts can be used in budget formulas.
D. Summary accounts use the summing segment type for mass allocations, whereas parent accounts use the looping segment type.
E. Summary accounts balances can be viewed in the Account Inquiry form, whereas parent accounts balances cannot be viewed in that form.
Answer: E

20. Which subledger transfers journal information directly to General Ledger to create an unposted journal entry?
A. Assets
B. Inventory
C. Payables
D. Purchasing
E. Receivables
Answer: A

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Exam : Microsoft 70-649
Title : TS:Upgrading MCSE on Wndws Serv 2003 to Wndws Serv 2008

1. Your company has a main office and 15 branch offices. The company has a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008.
You need to ensure that the VPN connections between the main office and the branch offices meet the following requirements:
All data must be encrypted by using end-to-end encryption.
The VPN connection must use computer-level authentication.
User names and passwords cannot be used for authentication.
What should you do?
A. Configure an IPsec connection to use tunnel mode and preshared key authentication.
B. Configure a PPTP connection to use version 2 of the MS-CHAP v2 authentication.
C. Configure a L2TP/IPsec connection to use the EAP-TLS authentication.
D. Configure a L2TP/IPsec connection to use version 2 of the MS-CHAP v2 authentication.
Answer: C

2. Your company has a network that has 100 servers. You install a new server that runs Windows Server 2008. The server has the Web Server (IIS) role installed. You discover that the Reliability Monitor has no data, and that the Systems Stability chart has never been updated. You need to configure the server to collect the Reliability Monitor data. What should you do?
A. Run the perfmon.exe /sys command on the server.
B. Configure the Task Scheduler service to start automatically.
C. Configure the Remote Registry service to start automatically.
D. Configure the Secondary Logon service to start automatically.
Answer: B

3. Your company has deployed Network Access Protection (NAP). You configure secure wireless access to the network by using 802.1x authentication from any access point. You need to ensure that all client computers that access the network are evaluated by NAP. What should you do?
A. Configure all access points as RADIUS clients to the Remediation Servers.
B. Configure all access points as RADIUS clients to the Network Policy Server (NPS).
C. Create a Network Policy that defines Remote Access Server as a network connection method.
D. Create a Network Policy that specifies EAP-TLS as the only available authentication method.
Answer: B

4. You have two servers that run Windows Server 2008 named Server1 and Server2. You install WSUS on both servers. You need to configure WSUS on Server1 to receive updates from Server2. What should you do on Server1?
A. Configure a proxy server.
B. Configure an upstream server.
C. Create a new replica group.
D. Create a new computer group.
Answer: B

5. Your company has a network that has 100 servers. A server named Server1 is configured as a file server. Server1 is connected to a SAN and has 15 logical drives. You want to automatically run a data archiving script if the free space on any of the logical drives is below 30 percent. You need to automate the script execution. You create a new Data Collector Set. What should you do next?
A. Add the Event trace data collector.
B. Add the Performance counter alert.
C. Add the Performance counter data collector.
D. Add the System configuration data collector.
Answer: B

6. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008. You have a server named Server1 that hosts shared documents. Users report extremely slow response times when they try to open the shared documents on Server1. You log on to Server1 and observe real-time data indicating that the processor is operating at 100 percent of capacity. You need to gather additional data to diagnose the cause of the problem. What should you do?
A. In the Performance console, create a counter log to track processor usage.
B. In Event Viewer, open and review the application log for Performance events.
C. In Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor, use the Resource View to see the percentage of processor capacity used by each application.
D. In Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor, create an alert that will be triggered when processor usage exceeds 80 percent for more than five minutes on Server1.
Answer: C

7. Your company has an Active Directory domain that has two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. You prepare both servers to support event subscriptions. On DC1, you create a new default subscription for DC2. You need to review system events for DC2. Which event log should you select?
A. system log on DC1
B. application log on DC2
C. Forwarded Events log on DC1
D. Forwarded Events log on DC2
Answer: C

8. Your company has a server named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2008. DC1 has the DHCP Server role installed.
You find that a desktop computer named SALES4 is unable to obtain an IP configuration from the DHCP server.
You install the Microsoft Network Monitor 3.0 application on DC1. You enable P-mode in the Network Monitor application configuration. You plan to capture only the DHCP server-related traffic between DC1 and SALES4.
The network interface configuration for the two computers is shown in the following table.
You need to build a filter in the Network Monitor application to capture the DHCP traffic between DC1 and SALES4.
Which filter should you use?
A. IPv4.Address == 169.254.15.84 && DHCP
B. IPv4.Address == 192.168.2.1 && DHCP
C. Ethernet.Address == 0×000A5E1C7F67 && DHCP
D. Ethernet.Address == 0×001731D55EFF && DHCP
Answer: D

9. You install WSUS on a server that runs Windows Server 2008. You need to ensure that the traffic between the WSUS administrative Web site and the server administrators computer is encrypted. What should you do?
A. Configure SSL encryption on the WSUS server Web site.
B. Run the netdom trust /SecurePasswordPrompt command on the WSUS server.
C. Configure the NTFS permissions on the content directory to Deny Full Control permission to the Everyone group.
D. Configure the WSUS server to require Integrated Windows Authentication (IWA) when users connect to the WSUS server.
Answer: A

10. You deploy a Windows Server 2008 VPN server behind a firewall. Remote users connect to the VPN by using portable computers that run Windows Vista with the latest service pack. The firewall is configured to allow only secured Web communications. You need to enable remote users to connect as securely as possible. You must achieve this goal without opening any additional ports on the firewall. What should you do?
A. Create an IPsec tunnel.
B. Create an SSTP VPN connection.
C. Create a PPTP VPN connection.
D. Create an L2TP VPN connection.
Answer: B

11. You have 10 standalone servers that run Windows Server 2008. You install WSUS on a server named Server1. You need to configure all of the servers to receive updates from Server1. What should you do?
A. Configure the Windows Update settings on each server by using the Control Panel.
B. Run the wuauclt.exe /detectnow command on each server.
C. Run the wuauclt.exe /reauthorization command on each server.
D. Configure the Windows Update settings on each server by using a local group policy.
Answer: D

12. You perform a security audit of a server named CRM1. You want to build a list of all DNS requests that are initiated by the server. You install the Microsoft Network Monitor 3.0 application on CRM1. You capture all local traffic on CRM1 for 24 hours. You save the capture file as data.cap. You find that the size of the file is more than 1 GB. You need to create a file named DNSdata.cap from the existing capture file that contains only DNS-related data. What should you do?
A. Apply the display filter !DNS and save the displayed frames as a DNSdata.cap file.
B. Apply the capture filter DNS and save the displayed frames as a DNSdata.cap file.
C. Add a new alias named DNS to the aliases table and save the file as DNSdata.cap.
D. Run the nmcap.exe /inputcapture data.cap /capture DNS /file DNSdata.cap command.
Answer: D

13. Your company has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) and Network Access Protection (NAP) deployed on the network. You need to ensure that NAP policies are enforced on portable computers that use a wireless connection to access the network. What should you do?
A. Configure all access points to use 802.1X authentication.
B. Configure all portable computers to use MS-CHAP v2 authentication.
C. Use the Group Policy Management Console to access the wireless Group Policy settings, and enable the Prevent connections to ad-hoc networks option.
D. Use the Group Policy Management Console to access the wireless Group Policy settings, and disable the Prevent connections to infrastructure networks option.
Answer: A

14. Your company has a single Active Directory domain and an enterprise root certificate authority. The company plans to use Network Access Protection (NAP) to protect the VPN connections.
You build two servers named NPS1 and VPN1. You configure the following functions on the two servers as shown in the following table.
You need to ensure that the system health policy is applied to all client computers that attempt VPN connections.
What should you do?
A. Reconfigure NPS1 as a RADIUS client.
B. Reconfigure VPN1 as a RADIUS client.
C. Add the NAP role to a domain controller.
D. Add the NAP role to an Enterprise Certificate server.
Answer: B

15. Your network contains a server that runs Windows Server 2008. The server has the Network Policy Server (NPS) service role installed. You need to allow only members of a global group named Group1 VPN access to the network. What should you do?
A. Add Group1 to the RAS and IAS Servers group.
B. Add Group1 to the Network Configuration Operators group.
C. Create a new network policy and define a group-based condition for Group1. Set the access permission of the policy to Access granted. Set the processing order of the policy to 1.
D. Create a new network policy and define a group-based condition for Group1. Set the access permission of the policy to Access granted. Set the processing order of the policy to 3.
Answer: C

16. Your company has a network that has an Active Directory domain. The domain has two servers named DC1 and DC2. You plan to collect events from DC2 and transfer them to DC1. You configure the required subscriptions by selecting the Normal option for the Event delivery optimization setting and by using the HTTP protocol. You discover that none of the subscriptions work. You need to ensure that the servers support the event collectors. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Run the wecutil qc command on DC1.
B. Run the wecutil qc command on DC2.
C. Run the winrm quickconfig command on DC1.
D. Run the winrm quickconfig command on DC2.
E. Add the DC2 account to the Administrators group on DC1.
F. Add the DC1 account to the Administrators group on DC2.
Answer: ADF

17. Your company has a single Active Directory domain. The domain has servers that run Windows Server 2008. You have a server named NAT1 that functions as a NAT server. You need to ensure that administrators can access a server named RDP1 by using Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). What should you do?
A. Configure NAT1 to forward port 389 to RDP1.
B. Configure NAT1 to forward port 1432 to RDP1.
C. Configure NAT1 to forward port 3339 to RDP1.
D. Configure NAT1 to forward port 3389 to RDP1.
Answer: D

18. Your company has 10 servers that run Windows Server 2008. The servers have RDP enabled for server administration. RDP is configured to use default security settings. All administrators’ computers run Windows Vista. You need to ensure the RDP connections are as secure as possible. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Set the security layer for each server to the RDP Security Layer.
B. Configure the firewall on each server to block port 3389.
C. Acquire user certificates from the internal certificate authority.
D. Configure each server to allow connections only to Remote Desktop client computers that use Network Level Authentication.
Answer: CD

19. Your company’s corporate network uses Network Access Protection (NAP). Users are able to connect to the corporate network remotely. You need to ensure that data transmissions between remote client computers and the corporate network are as secure as possible. What should you do?
A. Apply an IPsec NAP policy.
B. Configure a NAP policy for 802.1x wireless connections.
C. Configure VPN connections to use MS-CHAP v2 authentication.
D. Restrict Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) clients by using NAP.
Answer: A

20. You have a server that runs Windows Server 2008. You need to prevent the server from establishing communication sessions to other computers by using TCP port 25. What should you do?
A. From Windows Firewall, add an exception.
B. From Windows Firewall, enable the Block all incoming connections option.
C. From the Windows Firewall with Advanced Security snap-in, create an inbound rule.
D. From the Windows Firewall with Advanced Security snap-in, create an outbound rule.
Answer: D

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Exam : IBM LOT-701
Title : IBM Lotus Notes Domino 7 Application Development Update

1. Gail has a complex column defined in an existing view in her Domino application. She would like to use this column in four other views. How should she make this a shared column to be used in the other views?
A. Select the column and choose Create – Copy As Shared Column.
B. Select the Share this column option in the Column Properties dialog box.
C. Copy the column into the other views and choose Share this column in the Column Properties dialog box.
D. Copy the column from the existing design and paste it into the Shared Column design area in Domino Designer.
Answer: A

2. Tony has deleted a Shared Column in Domino Designer, but it was still used in a view. What will happen to that column in the view?
A. The column will remain in the view.
B. The column will be flagged as "hidden".
C. The column will be deleted from the view.
D. Domino Designer will not let you delete a Shared Column that is still being used in at least one view.
Answer: A

3. What information is reported on the Profile document for an agent that has been profiled?
A. Class, Method, Operation, Calls, Time
B. Statement, Execution Count, Execution Time
C. Start Time, End Time, Total Statements Executed
D. Agent, Server, Statement, Calls, Milliseconds Run
Answer: A

4. Jose needs to modify a Domino application that has a Web service as part of the application design. Where can he find the Web service design element?
A. Other – Web Services
B. Shared Code – Agents
C. Shared Code – Web Services
D. Shared Resources – Web Services
Answer: C

5. Jackie has a number of shared actions in her Domino application, and she needs to make sure the action buttons are all using standard Notes icons. What new feature in Domino Designer can she check to find this information?
A. The Icon Type section of the Design Synopsis.
B. The shared actions design column for icon type.
C. The Icon field in the Shared Action property dialog box.
D. The Find Shared Actions button in the Action Bar design element.
Answer: B

6. Bertha has a number of open Notes documents in her Notes client, and she would like to quickly close all the tabs at once. How can she do this?
A. Actions – Close All Tabs
B. File – Close Current Open
C. Actions – Close Current Open
D. File – Close All Open Window Tabs
Answer: D

7. Tom needs to add a form alias named frmInvoice to his Invoice form design element. How can he add this information to the form design?
A. Add the alias in the Alias field in the Form Properties dialog box.
B. On the Object tab in the Programmer’s pane, select Alias and add the form alias.
C. Select the Invoice form in the Domino Designer client and click in the Alias column to edit the alias.
D. Delete the existing form and recreate it, specifying the alias name when the form is initially created.
Answer: C

8. Rebecca has a number of shared actions in her Domino application, but she needs to quickly determine which actions display in the action bar and which actions display in the menu. What feature in Domino Designer can she check to find this information?
A. The Shared Action Location section of the Design Synopsis.
B. The Location field in the Shared Action property dialog box.
C. The Find Shared Actions button in the Action Bar design element.
D. The shared actions design columns for action bar and menu locations.
Answer: D

9. change. How can Tony determine which views use a specific Shared Column?
A. In Domino Designer, Tools – Find Shared Columns
B. In Domino Designer, File – Database – Design Synopsis
C. In Domino Designer, Design – Design Properties – Shared Column Use
D. In Domino Designer, Shared Columns – Who is using this Shared Column
Answer: D

10. Sally has a JavaScript library design element in a Domino application that was last signed by a developer who no longer works for the company. What new feature can she use in ND7 to resign that single design element with her ID?
A. edit the JavaScript library design element and resave it.
B. Highlight the library in Domino Designer and click the Sign button.
C. Click the Sign button on the DesigBnM tab of the Design Properties box.
D. Launch the Administrator client and use Tools – Sign – Script Libraries.
Answer: B

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部分最新免费BR0-002认证题库
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Exam : CompTIA BR0-002
Title : CompTIA Bridge Exam – Security+

1. A company wants all IM chat via the internet to stop. A technician blocks IRC traffic with a traffic shaping device, yet IM chat remains useable. Which of the following should a technician do next?
A.Block both IRC and ICMP
B.Utilize SNMP to identify IM users
C.Contact the IM carrier to request the IM account be disabled.
D.Change the shaping setting to allow minimal traffic to reduce port hopping.
Answer: D

2. A computer is having trouble accessing web pages. An easy way to determine if DNS is configured properly is to PING a domain name and determine if the:
A.IP address resolved to the domain name.
B.domain name resolved to an IP address.
C.reply had a TTL value of less than 300ms.
D.domain name repeated throughout the PING.
Answer: B

3. Which of the following is the maximum transmission speed of CAT5e?
A.10Mbps
B.100Mbps
C.1000Mbps
D.10000Mbps
Answer: C

4. Configuring two network cards for failover in the event that one of the NICs becomes defective is known as:
A.data redundancy.
B.full duplex mode.
C.hardware teaming.
D.constantly awake mode (CAM).
Answer: C

5. Which of the following cable types is the LEAST affected by EMI?
A.STP
B.Coax
C.UTP
D.Fiber
Answer: D

6. Which of the following tools would be the BEST to check connectivity of a CAT5 cable?
A.Tone generator
B.Multimeter
C.Punch-down tool
D.Cable tester
Answer: D

7. Which of the following Internet connection types has the highest amount of latency?
A.Satellite
B.DSL
C.Cable
D.Fiber
Answer: A

8. Which of the following information is received when DHCP is enabled?
A.Network permissions
B.SMTP
C.MAC address
D.Subnet Mask
Answer: D

9. Which of the following routing protocols is a link state and uses a backbone called area 0?
A.OSPF
B.EIGRP
C.BGP
D.IS-IS
Answer: A

10. Which of the following cable standards has a maximum effective range of 25 meters (82 feet)?
A.1000Base-CX
B.1000Base-T
C.1000Base-LX
D.1000Base-SX
Answer: A

11. Two locations with a wireless WAN intermittently drop the connection between each other throughout the day. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for the inconsistent connection?
A.Routers from different vendors
B.Frequency hopping is enabled
C.Bad media
D.Interference
Answer: D

12. Which of the following devices sets the framing type on a T1 circuit?
A.Transceiver
B.Gateway Modem
C.Router
D.CSU/DSU
Answer: D

13. A 100 pair cable is typically used to connect:
A.telephony distribution.
B.businesses with more than 75 computers.
C.security cameras.
D.computer labs with more than 20 computers.
Answer: A

14. Which of the following network topologies offers the greatest protection against network outages due to a single line break?
A.Bus
B.Star
C.Mesh
D.Ring
Answer: C

15. Which of the following protocols allows a server to gather data about network performance?
A.ICS
B.TCP
C.SNMP
D.SMTP
Answer: C

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:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新190-836考试题库)

 
 
Exam : Microsoft 190-836
Title : IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Developing Web Applications

1. A system administrator needs to give Web users access to databases on DomServer1/Acme. Presently, only Notes clients are allowed to access the database via TCP/IP. What should the system administrator do?
A. Add HTTP access to the DomServer1/Acme Domino Directory.
B. Add WebService access to the DomServer1/Acme Domino Directory.
C. Add HTTP to the list of server tasks in the DomServer1/Acme Notes.ini file.
D. Add WebService to the list of server tasks in the DomServer1/Acme Notes.ini file.
Answer: C

2. Martin just moved his Domino Web application to a new server. Now, when a Web user calls an agent, a new security error occurs that did not occur on the old server. What is a possible cause for this?
A. Martin needs to rewrite his Script Libraries to utilize JavaScript.
B. Martin is using outdated Java code that cannot run on the new server.
C. Martin needs to register his Web application in the catalog.nsf database.
D. Martin needs to be added to the Server Document’s "Sign script libraries to run on behalf of someone else" field.
Answer: D

3. Melissa has created a default outline in her application, and wants to display specific outline entries to Web users. How can she do this?
A. Create a separate outline for Web users.
B. Use Hide-when formulas on the page where the outline is embedded.
C. Surround outline entries with HTML tags to make them visible to Web users.
D. Select or deselect the "Hide entry from Web browsers" checkbox for the Outline entry.
Answer: D

4. Logan has a servlet that he wants to deploy as part of his Domino-based Web application. What does he need to do to accomplish this?
A. Deploy the servlet to a J2EE application server.
B. Domino does not support the use of servlets.
C. Create a Web Configuration Settings document and change the Configuration Type to "Servlet Support".
D. Enable servlet support for the Domino server by modifying the Java Servlet Support section of the Server Document.
Answer: D

5. Which one of the following programming languages or language combinations can be used to build an agent that retrieves data from non-Domino servers over the Internet?
A. Java
B. XML, WSDL
C. LotusScript in combination with C
D. This is not possible in a Web agent.
Answer: A

6. Maggie wants to display the authenticated user’s name on her Web site’s welcome page. How can she do this?
A. Use the JavaScript document.userName property.
B. Display the name using the USER_NAME CGI field.
C. Write a JavaScript function that gets the name from the session cookie.
D. Create computed text on the page that computes to the current user’s name.
Answer: D

7. Web users using Robert’s Domino-based site are able to submit formatted text. How does he accomplish this on his form?
A. Display a text field as an editor applet.
B. Display a rich text field as an editor applet.
C. Display a rich text field within an HTML text area.
D. Display a rich text lite field within an HTML text area.
Answer: B

8. Which of the following can be used to create an anchor link in a Notes database form?
A. A link hotspot
B. A button using Java
C. A formula pop-up hotspot
D. An action hotspot that uses LotusScript
Answer: A

9. Chris is creating a Web service consumer in Domino. He has a URL that he has used from a Web browser to browse the WSDL for the web service he will consume. He does not have a copy of the WSDL file on his computer. When he selected the option to import the WSDL, he was presented with a window prompting him to enter a file name. How can Chris get the WSDL imported into his Web service consumer?
A. Chris cannot enter a WSDL URL here. He must save the WSDL file to his local machine first.
B. Enter the URL of the WSDL as the file name, and click the Open button. Domino will then import the WSDL.
C. Change the http:// part of the WSDL URL to file://, and enter that as the file name. After you click the Open button, Domino will import the WSDL.
D. Select the "Retrieve WSDL from Web" option. A window displays prompting for the "WSDL Web address". Enter the URL of the WSDL as the Web address, and click the Open button. Domino will then import the WSDL.
Answer: B

10. Which of the following server tasks must be enabled in order for a Domino application to be accessed from a Web browser?
A. WEB
B. HTTP
C. HTML
D. DOMINO
Answer: B

11. Pierre wants to add a company logo to the top of all the views in his database when they are displayed on the Web. He knows he can create a special form that defines how all the views are displayed by Domino. What does he need to name this special form?
A. $$ViewTemplate
B. $$ViewTemplateDefault
C. $$DominoViewTemplate
D. $$WebViewTemplate
Answer: B

12. Gary would like to modify a view so that links on his Web site are displayed in the second column rather than the first column. How can he accomplish this?
A. Add another "Web" column to the view.
B. Modify the view property "Column number for Web links".
C. Select the column property "Show values in the column as links" in the second column, and deselect the same property for the first column.
D. Use pass-thru HTML to achieve this effect, as there is no column or view property available.
Answer: C

13. Jane created a cascading style sheet that she is trying to add to her Domino database. When she clicks the "New Style Sheet Resource" button and navigates to the proper directory, she does not see the style sheet file. What can she do to correct this?
A. Cut and paste the style-sheet file into the database.
B. Make sure that the style-sheet file extension is .css.
C. Add the cascading style-sheet as a File Resource first, then import it from there.
D. Put the style code into a Page element, then save the element to include it as part of the application.
Answer: B

14. Serge wants to store some user preferences in a database, so that each user can set custom settings and have those settings available the next time they use the database. What kind of special Notes design element should he use?
A. User Form
B. Preference Form
C. Profile Document
D. Settings Document
Answer: C

15. Marc is creating a Web application. He wants to let Web users with "No Access" view specific pages created with forms. How can he accomplish this?
A. Create a form with a Readers field, and give the field a computed value of "$PublicAccess". Create a view with "$PublicAccess" in the access list.
B. Create a form with a $PublicAccess field. Set the "Available to public access users" form property. Create a view with "$PublicAccess" in the access list.
C. Create a form with a $PublicAccess field. Set the "Available to public access users" form property. Create a view with the "Available to public access users" property set.
D. Create a form with a $PublicAccess field. Set a Readers field to "Available to public access users". Create a view with the "Available to public access users" property set.
Answer: C

16. Henry has an executable file stored as a file resource in his database. He wants to make this file available for use via a Web browser, using the URL syntax:
http://server/db.nsf/filename?OpenFileResource
What additional things does he need to do?
A. He needs to enable the "Use File Resources on the Web" database property.
B. An executable file cannot be made available to Web browsers as a File Resource.
C. He does not need to do anything else. The file will be available to users as-is.
D. He needs to update the MIME type property in the File Resource properties box to "application/executable".
Answer: C

17. Shawn is allowing another Web application to call his LotusScript agent via URL. Instead of seeing a formatted Web page, the other user only sees the text "Agent done". What can Shawn do provide better feedback from his agent?
A. Use a form instead with a WebQuerySave agent.
B. This is a Domino feature and cannot be changed.
C. Use the Print method within the agent to output text.
D. Use the WebPrint method within the agent to output text.
Answer: C

18. Sara’s application needs to use the same graphic in several forms. When she designed the application, she pasted the graphic into each form. However, when she views documents that were created with these forms, the browser reacts very slowly. What should Sara do to correct this problem?
A. Remove the graphics from the forms.
B. Convert the graphic format to a TIFF and paste it back into the forms.
C. Place the graphic in the database as an image resource and reference the image resource in all related forms.
D. Compress the graphics into a single ZIP file and place the file in the database as an image resource.
Answer: C

19. Hank is investigating navigation options for his Web application, and wants to come up with something that is flexible and easy to use. Which of the following provides this in Domino?
A. A Web navigator
B. A custom Java applet
C. HTML views embedded onto pages
D. An outline embedded onto a page
Answer: D

20. Candy created a Domino based Web site with the following site rule defined:
Type of rule:
Substitution Incoming URL pattern: /projects/*/*.html
Replacement pattern: /projects/*.nsf/*?OpenPage
Which of the following describes the destination URL that is generated by Domino when the user enters */projects/cio/index.html as the URL?
A. /projects/cio.nsf/index?OpenPage
B. /projects/index.nsf/cio?OpenPage
C. /projects/projects.nsf/cio?OpenPage
D. /projects/cio.nsf/index.html
Answer: A

2008年11月29日

最新920-123认证考试题库下载

Filed under: Nortel — admin @ 2:03 pm

最新920-123考试题库

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Exam : Nortel 920-123
Title : NNCSS MPS Application Developer

1. The total call timer is required to be fixed at 20 minutes. To maximize system efficiency, where should the timer be set?
A. Configuration File
B. VSH Command Line
C. PeriProducer Handle Block
D. PeriProducer Environment Block
Answer: A

2. Which file contains records of SRP monitored processes?
A. %MPSHOMEcommonlogsrp.log
B. %MPSHOMEprocesslogssrp.log
C. %MPSHOMEcommonsrpproc.log
D. %MPSHOMEprocesslogsrpsrp.log
Answer: A

3. Tappman performs the following actions EXCEPT for:
A. application assignment to lines and IVR’s
B. scheduling applications to start and terminate
C. copying the executable file to the IVR at assigning time
D. checking to see what applications are currently running
Answer: C

4. An application developer is entering a select statement into the Structured Query Language (SQL) block. In order to create a list of columns being returned into the application in the bottom Folder-Datacard selection list window, the application developer would right click the mouse and choose:
A. Return into
B. Create datacards
C. Bind with datanames
D. Copy from blocknames
Answer: A

5. An application needs to have runtime options set within Appman. Which action will accomplish this task?
A. starting the application
B. assigning the application
C. configuring the application
D. terminating the application
Answer: C

6. Tappman would need to be used in which scenario?
A. The Appman GUI tool is not accessible.
B. An application configuration file needs to be created.
C. The operator wants to set the kill timer to 60 seconds.
D. The operator needs to view a graphical display of applications currently running.
Answer: A

7. Parameterized Containers in PeriProducer are being used. What restriction applies for passing an Array?
A. An Array can be passed without change.
B. An Array must be passed in a Shared Folder.
C. The folder containing the Array must be passed.
D. Arrays can not be passed to Parameterized Containers.
Answer: C

8. A programmer allocated a fixed number of records during database initialization. What type of database file was initialized?
A. Flat File
B. Transient Data Queue (TDQ)
C. Index Sequential Access Method (ISAM)
D. Hash-Sequenced Access Method (HSAM)
Answer: D

9. Which PeriProducer block is used to convey a message to a host using Communications Manager (COMMGR)?
A. System
B. Resource
C. Send Host
D. Environment
Answer: C

10. A customer wants their Statistical Collection Node to store Daily Statistics for up to five years. Which file needs to be modified to accomplish this task?
A. .conspr
B. .perireporter
C. schedule.cfg
D. pr_app_v5.plx
Answer: A

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Examsoon
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优点:不需下载安装软件,方便用户打印和携带,但也带来了可随意制的弊端,因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的920-123题库,一经发现立即取消其升级资格,且不予退款。
缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

免费HP0-655学习资料

Filed under: HP — admin @ 8:17 am

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HP0-655 考试是 HP 公司的 Data Protector 5.5 Basics for Windows 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的 HP0-655 权威考试题库软件是 HP 认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 HP0-655考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

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优点:不需下载安装软件,方便用户打印和携带,但也带来了可随意制的弊端,因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的HP0-655题库,一经发现立即取消其升级资格,且不予退款。
缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

Examsoon
部分最新免费HP0-655认证题库
:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新HP0-655考试题库)

 
 
Exam : HP HP0-655
Title : Data Protector 5.5 Basics for Windows

1. What is the result of a successful backup session using object mirroring?
A. All backups and mirrored objects are appended to the same media.
B. Mirrored objects are written to a special mirror pool and the backup is written to the specified media set.
C. All backups and mirrored objects are in the same media pool.
D. One media set contains the backup and additional media sets contain the mirrored objects.
Answer: D

2. What is the default value of the "Reconnect broken connections" option in the Data Protector backup specification?
A. All (Control and Data connections)
B. Control connections only
C. Data connections only
D. Off (Do not reconnect)
Answer: D

3. Which section of the backup specification contains the information about the backup target drives?
A. objects
B. devices
C. media pools
D. backup types
Answer: B

4. Where is the file version information stored?
A. Catalog Database (CDB)
B. Session Messages Binary Files (SMBF)
C. Detail Catalog Binary Files (DCBF)
D. Media Management Database (MMDB)
Answer: C

5. What happens to shared logical devices in a SAN environment when you upgrade Data Protector to version 5.5?
A. Shared logical devices must be deleted prior to the upgrade and then reconfigured as multipath devices.
B. Shared logical devices are not reconfigured during the upgrade and can be used as before or reconfigured as multipath devices.
C. Shared logical devices are deleted during the upgrade and must be reconfigured as multipath devices.
D. Shared logical devices are automatically reconfigured as multipath devices during the upgrade.
Answer: B

6. By default, which file is the Data Protector Database recovery file?
A. obdb.dat
B. obrindex.dat
C. obdatafiles.dat
D. obdbrecovery.dat
Answer: B

7. After the Media Management Databases are merged from other cells into the Manager of Managers database, what is the new name for this database?
A. CMDB (Central Management Database)
B. MoMDB (Manager of Managers Database)
C. MMMDB (Merged Media Management Database)
D. CMMDB (Centralized Media Management Database)
Answer: D

8. What can Data Protector use to generate the media label during media initialization?
A. unique number issued by the internal database
B. serial number of the drive used for initialization
C. barcode label of the media
D. media type
Answer: C

9. Which file must you edit to enable Data Protector internal database transaction logging?
A. omnirc.TMPL
B. velocis.ini
C. obrindex.dat
D. global file
Answer: B

10. A single tape device is used in a SAN and configured for multiple Data Protector clients. Which option causes it to be recognized as a single device, requiring one drive extension license?
A. Multipath
B. Autopass
C. Direct backup
D. Indirect backup
Answer: A

11. Your internal database is inoperable and an automated recovery is to be used. Which command allows you to perform this task?
A. omnir -autorecover
B. omnidb -autorecover
C. omnisv -autorecover
D. omnidbutil -autorecover
E. omnidbrestore -autorecover
Answer: E

12. What is the maximum recommended size of a file depot for Windows?
A. 50GB
B. 100GB
C. 200GB
D. 600GB
Answer: A

13. How many Data Protector cells can be managed by a single Manager-of-Managers?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 1000
Answer: B

14. When preparing for internal database recovery, you should regularly backup the internal database object. What does this object include? Select TWO.
A. the entire IDB
B. the Cell Manager OS system configuration
C. the Cell Manager DP program directories
D. the pre-exec and post-exec scripts
E. the DP configuration
Answer: AE

15. The default installation of Data Protector includes an automatic database purge. This happens daily at what time?
A. 00:00
B. 12:00
C. 15:00
D. 22:00
Answer: B

16. What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify file system objects in the database? Select THREE.
A. description
B. filenames
C. mountpoint
D. device
E. rawdisk sections
F. hostname
Answer: ACF

17. The Data Protector scheduler allows for scheduling of which entity?
A. media agent
B. logical device
C. backup object
D. backup session
E. backup specification
Answer: E

18. In the Data Protector GUI "Users" context with default setting applied, a user on a remote system may be configured into one of three roles. What are these roles? Select THREE.
A. admin
B. root
C. guest
D. operator
E. java
F. user
Answer: ADF

19. Which CLI command scans specified Data Protector clients and gathers information on SCSI addresses of drives and robotic controllers connected to the clients in a SAN environment?
A. uma
B. omnisan
C. sanconfig
D. omniconfigsan
Answer: C

20. Between which instances is data moved during a disk staging object copy process?
A. Media Agent and Disk Agent
B. Media Agent and Media Agent
C. Backup Session Manager and Disk Agent
D. Backup Session Manager and Media Agent
Answer: B

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Filed under: IBM — admin @ 6:50 am

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Exam : IBM 000-745
Title : Storage Networking Solutions Version 2

1. Which feature of Cisco Fabric Manager is designed to integrate with other management tools?
A. The specific vendor plug-in offered by Cisco
B. The Cisco Agent on the host system
C. A request form for a feature enhancement to Cisco
D. The Application Program Interface
Answer: D

2. A customer is planning a new SAN infrastructure as part of a data center consolidation project at a remote campus site. In the main building, there are:
- 20 Microsoft Windows based servers, each with 2 HBAs
- 12 AIX servers, each with 3 HBAs
- 2 HP-UX servers, each with 4 HBAs
- IBM DS8300 with 3 Host Adapter interfaces
An IBM 3584 tape library with six LTO-2 tape drives is located in another building with a 550 meter cable run. The time for tape backup operations must be kept to a minimum so all drives will be utilized at the same time by multiple clients. One Cisco MDS 9509 director will be located in the main building, and a Cisco 9216 switch will be located with the tape drives. How many additional short wave and long wave SFPs need to be ordered?
A. 102 short wave SFPs and 0 long wave SFPs
B. 100 short wave SFPs and 0 long wave SFPs
C. 96 short wave SFPs and 4 long wave SFPs
D. 0 short wave SFPs and 104 long wave SFPs
Answer: C

3. Which of the following are TWO methods to enable NDMP support on the N series?
A. Via command line: ndmpd on
B. By installing the NDMP protocol via http.
C. By attaching a tape library
D. By using a rpm package: rpm -ivh ndmpd72.rpm
E. Using FilerView: selecting NDMP and using the enable button.
Answer: AE

4. A storage specialist just added an N series Gateway to a storage environment. The specialist would like to change the FCP adapter 0d type on the N5500 system from target to initiator mode. What is the correct command to use?
A. ifadmin config -t initiator 0d
B. storage config -t initiator 0d
C. fcadmin config -t initiator 0d
D. fcadmin config mode initiator 0d
Answer: C

5. Using multiple IBM SAN256B Directors (2109-M48) requires which of the following enabled licenses to support FICON?
A. Port Tunneling
B. Expanded Port Feature
C. Enterprise Passthru
D. Advanced Security with CUP
Answer: D

6. If a storage specialist would like to connect a DS4800 to an N series Gateway, what is the correct host connection type to set on the DS4800?
A. AIX
B. Solaris
C. SUSE Linux
D. Redhat Linux
Answer: A

7. A customer needs to have an integrated data management solution for his SQL Server 2000 environment that improves the availability and reliability of SQL Server databases. What software feature option can the customer use for SQL server?
A. SnapDrive
B. SnapVault
C. SnapManager
D. SnapMirror
Answer: C

8. What N series Data ONTAP standard feature enables authenticated, command-line based administrative sessions between an N series system via the internet?
A. SnapAdmin
B. SecureAdmin
C. VlanAdmin
D. LockVault
Answer: B

9. A customer is preparing to install a Cisco Storage Director MDS 9509 in their data center. The 9509 will be installed in an existing IBM 2102 rack with SAN32B switches. The rack is installed adjacent to an IBM System p rack. Which of the following reasons explains why this would not be an optimal installation?
A. The 9509 is too heavy for the 2102.
B. The 2102 does not have the correct PDUs to support the 9509.
C. The 9509 has side-to-side airflow.
D. The 9509 requires telco support rails.
Answer: C

10. Two companies have merged and are making changes to adopt the IT and SAN standards of one of the companies. The new architecture must address flexibility, high availability, and scalability. In order to make the fabric consolidation and merge process least disruptive, which of the following factors should be evaluated?
A. The total number of domains, and storage ports
B. The number of users, and the types of servers and operating systems
C. Zoning on one fabric, security, network interfaces and management software
D. Domain IDs, zoning, compatibility, IP addresses, and fabric security
Answer: D

11. A customer has a SAN that includes one IBM DS8000 and one IBM DS4800. Host access to the storage is controlled ONLY via the storage controller’s LUN masking utility. The customer has noticed a long delay when the servers boot due to delays during the fabric discovery stage. In order to minimize the fabric discovery stage, the best approach would be to:
A. Reduce the number of HBAs for the servers.
B. Implement fabric zoning per host HBA.
C. Increase the number of fabric ISLs.
D. Increase the fabric RO_TV timer value.
Answer: B

12. The IBM N series subsystems include which of the following no-charge features?
A. SnapLock
B. SnapMirror
C. SnapShot
D. SnapVault
Answer: C

13. A customer currently has DS4000 subsystems installed with 5 TB capacity available and wants to provide 5 TB of storage to attach 50 Windows servers via iSCSI connections. Which of the following solutions would provide iSCSI connectivity and high performance at the lowest cost?
A. IBM DS300 Subsystem
B. IBM N3700
C. IBM N5200 Gateway attached to DS4000
D. IBM N7600 Gateway attached to DS4000
Answer: C

14. What product will allow a Storage Administrator to set storage utilization alerts for the DS8000, DS4800, San Volume Controller, and EMC DMX?
A. Brocade Fabric Manager
B. IBM Total Productivity Center
C. EMC StorageScope
D. Cisco Fabric Manager Server
Answer: B

15. A customer has an IBM N3700 model A10. The customer uses RAID DP and traditional volumes. According to best practice, what is the minimum number of drives that would be needed for system overhead?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

16. A customer’s System p server is running AIX 5L V5.3 on a DS8300. Additionally, a critical DB2 database runs on this system. What would be the best high availability option for this solution?
A. MPIO
B. Single Path only
C. SDD
D. PowerPath
Answer: C

17. A customer has three datacenters and 37 servers. They need heterogeneous super-efficient hourly disk-based online backup and restore by periodically backing up a SnapShot copy from Windows and Linux clients to another system. What N series feature do they need?
A. SnapVault
B. Open System SnapVault
C. SnapMirror
D. SnapLock
Answer: B

18. A customer wants to add an IBM N series filer to their enterprise. They want to attach clients using CIFS and NFS protocols on the IP network. Which of the following should be considered when determining the impact of this solution on the IP network?
A. The maximum number of connections, total usable capacity of the N filer, and estimated peak I/O activity.
B. The operating system type and Linux kernel release level for the clients that are connecting to the N Series servers.
C. The processor speed, memory size, manufacturer, and direct attached disk size of each client.
D. The vendor that manufactures the Network Interface Cards and the certified maximum transmissions speed of the network cables.
Answer: A

19. Which of the following protocols is included free of charge in the IBM N5200?
A. CIFS
B. NFS
C. iSCSI
D. FCP
Answer: C

20. A customer wants to upgrade an N series system from an N5200 to an N7600. What must be done to complete this upgrade?
A. Simply change the N series heads – all configuration data stays on the disks.
B. Purchase a head, new disks, and shelves. Then use SnapMirror to migrate the volumes.
C. Purchase a head, new disks, and shelves. Then use ndmpdump to migrate the volumes.
D. Purchase a head, new disks, and shelves. Use Data Fabric Manager to migrate the data.
Answer: B

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Filed under: HP — admin @ 2:02 am

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2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权,我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。

3.如果你使用 Examsoon模拟测试,我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功,否则,我们将全额退款!

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优点:具有学习模式,测试模式,线上自动升级
缺点:仅限固定电脑使用,不可打印为文本,只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式HP0-M15考试题库
优点:不需下载安装软件,方便用户打印和携带,但也带来了可随意制的弊端,因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的HP0-M15题库,一经发现立即取消其升级资格,且不予退款。
缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

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Exam : HP HP0-M15
Title : HP Quality Center 9.2 Software

1. When designing test steps it is important to ensure that all aspects of the application are tested. When writing test steps, what are two things that should be done to ensure clear and accurate steps? (Select two.)
A. specify all actual results
B. use parameters in the step names
C. specify pass and fail conditions for the step
D. use the numbering system for the step names
E. use consistent terminology throughout the test
Answer: CE

2. In order to reuse a test across other tests, must the reused test be a template test?
A. yes, only template tests are reusable
B. no, the test must be a VAPI test to be reusable
C. yes, template tests are reusable automated tests
D. no, tests do not need to be template tests to be reused
Answer: D

3. Which component provides an executive-level view of the entire quality process?
A. Quality Center Foundation
B. Business Process Insight
C. Service Test Component
D. Quality Center Dashboard
Answer: D

4. Where can you link tests to requirements?
A. from the Test Lab module
B. from the Requirements module
C. on the test details page (Test Plan)
D. on the attachments page (Test Plan)
Answer: B

5. What are the steps, in the correct order, to convert a requirement to a test?
A. make changes to the automatic conversion, select an automatic method
B. select convert to test, select the destination path, convert to automated test
C. select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion, select the destination subject path
D. select the destination subject path, select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion
Answer: C

6. What test types can be created in Quality Center? Select three
A. batch-test
B. vugen-test
C. lr-scenario
D. system-test
E. interface-test
F. wr-automated test
Answer: CDF

7. When you define tests inside of Quality Center, it is important that the tests are accurate and traceable. What are two other key pointers when defining tests? Select two.
A. simple
B. consistent
C. repeatable
D. convertible
E. automation
F. appropriate
Answer: BF

8. How can you create a test plan tree?
A. convert releases to tests
B. define test folders and tests manually
C. save automated tests in Quality Center
D. define test names for each test needed
Answer: B

9. When you generate an Excel report, why is it an advantage to use parameters?
A. enables the report to be saved
B. enables the user to name the report
C. enables the report to be used across projects
D. enables the report to be used for different purposes
Answer: D

10. While designing the test plan tree, you accidentally delete a folder that contained some tests that you need. Can you recover the tests?
A. no, once a test is deleted, it is gone
B. yes, the tests can be recovered from the Subject folder
C. yes, the test can be recovered from the Unattached folder
D. no, only Project Managers have permission to recover deleted tests
Answer: C

11. Click the Exhibit button.
What does the icon in the exhibit indicate in the Test Plan module, under the Test Script tab?
A. there is a test script
B. there is not a test script
C. there is a manual test case
D. the test script has changed
Answer: A

12. When a called test has parameters, when can you assign values to the parameters?
A. values are assigned from within the calling test
B. values must be assigned when the test is executed
C. values are assigned during test design or execution
D. values must be assigned when the test is called, during test design
Answer: C

13. How is a test configured as a template test?
A. The test type chosen must be MANUAL-TEMPLATE
B. The first step in the test must be named template test
C. Right-click on the test name and choose Template Test
D. During test planning, mark the checkbox, under details, labeled template Test
Answer: C

14. What web client can be used with Quality Center 9.2?
A. Netscape
B. Safari
C. Firefox
D. Internet Explorer
Answer: D

15. What does a live analysis graph illustrate in a visual overview?
A. all the tests in the Test Plan
B. all the cycles or releases the test is linked to
C. all the requirements linked to the specified test
D. all the tests in a specified folder in the Test Plan
Answer: D

16. What database can be used with Quality Center 9.2? Select two.
A. Access
B. Sybase
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Paradox
E. Oracle
Answer: CE

17. Can you change the values of a called test’s parameters?
A. no, values are assigned at run time
B. yes, if the called test is a template test
C. no, you must delete the called test and call it again
D. yes, right-click and choose Called Test Parameters
Answer: D

18. What HP functional testing tools integrate with Quality Center? (Select two.)
A. HP OpenView
B. HP WinRunner
C. HP QuickTest Professional
D. HP LoadRunner
E. HP Change Control Management
Answer: BC

19. Using the Excel Macro, what type of data can be imported into Quality Center? (Select three.)
A. defects data
B. test set data
C. test plan data
D. releases data
E. test Instance data
F. requirements data
Answer: ACF

20. Which term describes the main function of Quality Center?
A. test cases
B. repository
C. load test
D. defects
Answer: B

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Exam : HP HP0-244
Title : Advanced Backup Troubleshooting & Tuning

1. Click the Exhibit button.
A customer installed Virtual Replicator on a Windows 2000 host. Which backup applications are supported for backing up the Virtual Replicator disks? Select TWO.
A. HP Data Protector
B. Legato Networker
C. Tivoli Storage Manager
D. CommVault Galaxy
E. CA BrightStor EB
Answer: BC

2. SCSI bus termination is ____.
A. optional
B. required and there must be one terminator for each device on the bus
C. required and there must be two terminators, one on each end of the bus
D. required and done automatically by all SCSI devices
Answer: C

3. A medium business with small workgroups and remote offices needs to backup about 40 GB of data. Which HP StorageWorks tape drive is the most appropriate?
A. DAT 24
B. DAT 72
C. Ultrium 460
D. SDLT 320
Answer: B

4. Click the Exhibit button.
Which library and tape drive firmware must be used for an ESL9322 with Ultrium 460 tape drives and Data Protector?
A. Robot firmware 3.40, tape drive firmware F43W
B. Robot firmware 3.48, tape drive firmware F43W
C. Robot firmware 3.48, tape drive firmware F3CW
D. Robot firmware 3.40, tape drive firmware F3CW
Answer: B

5. What is an advantage of the Cartridge Memory (a memory chip located in the cartridge) of the LTO Ultrium technology (LTO-CM) over previous tape technologies?
A. It eliminates the need for barcodes and barcode readers in tape libraries.
B. Data such as tape identity, type, usage and tape contents is read from a chip rather than the system area on tape, which reduces the wear and tear of that particular section.
C. It contains troubleshooting information from the tape drive which can help to reduce overall repair times.
D. The Ultrium drive reads data for firmware upgrades from a chip rather than a tape which increases the speed of the upgrade procedure.
Answer: B

6. Disk and tape speed are key factors of a fast backup. Which issue may cause slow backup performance on Veritas Netbackup if you are doing LAN-based backup?
A. Single mode cables are used instead of multimode cables.
B. There are DNS resolution delays and wrong entries in the HOSTS file.
C. Fibre Channel switch cannot be reached over LAN.
D. Primary and secondary devices are connected to the same switch.
Answer: B

7. What is the maximum cable length of an LVD SCSI bus?
A. 7 m
B. 12 m
C. 20,5 m
D. 25 m
Answer: B

8. Which service should be disabled on Windows systems at operating system level to improve backup performance?
A. Logical Disk Manager
B. Removable Tape Service
C. Removable Storage Manager
D. Tape Storage Provider
Answer: C

9. HP Ultrium tape drives use the ATS (Adaptive Tape Speed) feature. The main purpose of ATS is to increase ____.
A. buffer capacity by varying the speed of the tape
B. tape write speed by adjusting the host transfer rate
C. overall performance by reducing the number of repositions
D. tape read speed by adjusting the host transfer rate
Answer: C

10. The DLT tape backward read compatibility of HP SuperDLT drives is possible due to the ____.
A. Magneto-Resistive Cluster (MRC) technology
B. additional magnetic read-head
C. Pivoting Optical Servo (POS) technology
D. low-dens mode switch
Answer: B

11. Which tool, available at the HP web site, can size and configure the ideal backup solution for DAS, NAS and SAN environments using information you specify?
A. HP OpenView Data Protector configuration scripter
B. Backup Sizing Tool
C. Enterprise Backup Solution Configuration Matrix
D. HP StorageWorks Library and Tape Tools
Answer: B

12. What happens if you connect an HVD (High Voltage Differential) HBA (host bus adapter) to an LVD (Low Voltage Differential) tape device?
A. The devices function correctly if you setup unique SCSI IDs and have proper termination.
B. The devices do not function together and you may damage them.
C. The devices function correctly after setting up the compatibility mode for the HBA.
D. The devices do not function together unless you use active termination.
Answer: B

13. Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has one single ESL9326D/DX with 4 DLT8000 drives. Which tape drive is supported for the next drives being installed in this library?
A. DLT 8000 drives only
B. SDLT220 or SDLT320
C. DLT8000, SDLT220 or SDLT320
D. SDLT220, SDLT320 or Ultrium230
Answer: C

14. Which file types should NOT be selected for backup in compressed mode? Select THREE.
A. Exchange Server stores
B. MPEG files
C. Powerpoint presentations
D. JPEG files
E. ASCII (.TXT) files
F. Post script (.PRN) files
Answer: ABD

15. Which HP StorageWorks tape drive is the most appropriate choice for enterprise businesses with 150 GB of data to backup?
A. DAT 24
B. DAT 72
C. DLT VS 80
D. Ultrium 460
Answer: D

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