IT认证考试网

2008年09月30日

免费JN0-342学习资料

Filed under: Juniper Networks — admin @ 11:41 pm

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Exam : Juniper Networks JN0-342
Title : ER, Associate (JNCIA-ER)

1. On a J-series router, where is the JUNOS software located?
A. EPROM
B. Zip drive
C. hard drive
D. compact flash
Answer: D

2. What are two methods of accessing a Juniper enterprise router? (Choose two.)
A. RSH
B. HTTPS
C. console
D. J-Config
Answer: BC

3. What are two components essential to link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. SPF algorithm
B. poison reverse
C. reliable flooding
D. distributed computation
Answer: AC

4. Which predefined login class allows a user to issue show, clear, and reset commands, but does not allow the user to configure the router?
A. noc
B. operator
C. read-only
D. super-user
Answer: B

5. Which CLI command will perform a traceroute to 10.0.29.1 with a maximum of 6 hops without performing a DNS lookup for the hostname?
A. traceroute ttl 6 no-dns 10.0.29.1
B. traceroute hop 6 no-dns 10.0.29.1
C. traceroute hop 6 no-resolve 10.0.29.1
D. traceroute ttl 6 no-resolve 10.0.29.1
Answer: D

6. Which type of route can an OSPF export policy match?
A. active routes
B. hidden routes
C. inactive routes
D. any route in the routing table
Answer: A

7. What are three methods for managing a Juniper Enterprise Router? (Choose three.)
A. CLI
B. SDX
C. SAP
D. J-Web
E. J-Config
Answer: ABD

8. During autoinstallation, the router attempts to acquire an IP address through one of its interfaces. All three attempts are unsuccessful.
What is the next step the router performs?
A. It shuts down all of its interfaces.
B. It activates DHCP in server mode.
C. It waits 30 seconds and then tries again.
D. It reboots itself and attempts autoinstallion again.
Answer: B

9. How many fixed Fast Ethernet ports are on a J2320 router?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: D

10. Which two components of the JUNOS software architecture are found on all Juniper enterprise routers? (Choose two.)
A. multiple software daemons
B. separation of control and forwarding
C. separate management interface (fxp0)
D. Application Specific Integrated Circuits (ASICs)
Answer: AB

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Filed under: Juniper Networks — admin @ 1:07 pm

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Exam : Juniper JN0-532
Title : FWV,Specialist(JNCIS-FWV)

1. Review the exhibit.
Which two of the following elements must be configured on the ScreenOS device in order to support PIM-SM? (Choose two)
A. A multicast control policy
B. A bootstrap router process
C. A unicast routing protocol
D. A static RP
Answer: AC

2. To which three ScreenOS components can a policy-based routing policy be bound? (Choose three.)
A. zone
B. policy
C. interface
D. virtual router
E. virtual system
Answer: ACD

3. What must be enabled to protect Phase 2 key exchanges?
A. Phase 1 PFS
B. Phase 2 SHA
C. Phase 2 3-DES
D. Phase 2 DH key exchange
Answer: D

4. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which two can be determined about the VPN? (Choose two.)
A. NAT-traversal is enabled.
B. The rekey interval is 8 hours.
C. This device initiated the Phase 1 negotiations.
D. The certificate used in this exchange is set to never expire.
Answer: BC

5. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the firewall administrator at the Storefront is complaining that when the communication to the DataCenter1 fails, the preexisting transfers and applications are dropped when the traffic is switched to DataCenter2.
Which statement explains this behavior?
A. SYN checking is enabled in the tunnel.
B. The weight value for the DataCenter2 is too high.
C. VPN monitor is misconfigured in the DataCenter2.
D. Phase 1 and Phase 2 negotiations to DataCenter2 did not occur on time.
Answer: A

6. Which command is used to verify that IGMP is running correctly?
A. get route igmp
B. get igmp query
C. set igmp query interface e0/1
D. exec igmp interface e0/1 query
Answer: D

7. Which CLI command identifies the multicast sources visible to your ScreenOS device?
A. get route pim
B. get igmp source all
C. exec pim interface all query
D. get vrouter trust-vr protocol pim
Answer: D

8. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the address of the multicast receiver?
A. 234.9.8.42
B. 192.168.10.2
C. 192.168.20.10
D. 192.168.20.200
Answer: D

9. Which two item pairs are exchanged during Phase 2 negotiations? (Choose two.)
A. proxy-id, SA proposal list
B. IKE cookie, SA proposal list
C. hash [ID + Key], DH key exchange
D. SA proposal list, optional DH key exchange
Answer: AD

10. You have created a virtual router called VSYSA-vr and made it shareable. You then create the VSYS using the WebUI, telling it to use an existing VR and selecting the VR called VSYSA-vr.
What is the status of the virtual router after you create the VSYS?
A. The router will be the default router but will no longer be shared.
B. The router will be the default router and will still have a shareable status.
C. The system will not let you use a shared virtual router when you create a new VSYS. The initial virtual router must be private.
D. The system will not create a private vr for the VSYS but will assign the untrust-vr as the default router. The shared Virtual router will not be the default router.
Answer: B

11. What must be configured differently for a route-based VPN and a policy-based VPN?
A. proxy-id
B. proposals
C. remote gateway type
D. binding the tunnel interface
Answer: D

12. During main mode negations a failure has occurred while using IKE certificates.
Which message pair would you review to troubleshoot this failure?
A. messages 1 & 2
B. messages 2 & 3
C. messages 3 & 4
D. messages 5 & 6
Answer: D

13. Review the exhibit.
You’ve been asked to build a route-based hub and spoke network, with policy control for traffic travelling from spoke to spoke. Which two of the following configuration options will meet this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Place the spoke tunnel interfaces in the trust zone and create policies on the spokes.
B. Place the spoke tunnel interfaces in the untrust zone and create policies on the spokes.
C. Create a single tunnel interface in the trust zone at the hub and enable intra-zone blocking.
D. Create separate tunnel interfaces at the hub and place them in different zones, then create policies at the hub.
Answer: BD

14. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the source IP address of the multicast traffic?
A. 236.1.1.1
B. 10.10.10.1
C. 20.20.20.10
D. 20.20.20.200
Answer: B

15. Click the Exhibit button.
Review the exhibit. Track-ip has failed on the device, but the device did not fail over to the second unit in the cluster:
Why has failover not occurred?
A. The physical interfaces have not failed.
B. The track-ip interval is not sufficient to cause failover.
C. The track-ip address weight is not sufficient to cause failover.
D. The track-ip address threshold is not sufficient to cause failover.
Answer: C

16. Which three OSPF parameters are interface parameters? (Choose three.)
A. cost
B. priority
C. neighbor list
D. summarization
E. advertise default route
Answer: ABC

17. Which ScreenOS CLI command is necessary for configuring IGMP on interface ethernet0/1?
A. set igmp interface ethernet0/1
B. set multicast interface ethernet0/1
C. set interface ethernet0/1 igmp router
D. set igmp interface ethernet0/1 enable
Answer: C

18. Which three statements are true regarding IKE Phase 1? (Choose three.)
A. Placing the SA proposal list in message 1 is an option.
B. The digital certificate is used to decrypt the session key.
C. The DH key exchange is used to validate the session key.
D. The DH key exchange and digital certificates are both optional.
E. The proxy-id is used to determine which SA is referenced for the VPN.
Answer: ABC

19. You have entered the command
set ffilter src-ip 1.1.7.250 dst-ip 10.1.10.5 ip-prot 6
What will be the resulting output in the debug for which this was created?
A. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 or a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 or has TCP as its protocol then it will be captured
B. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 or a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 or has UDP as its protocol then it will be captured
C. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 and a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 and has TCP as its protocol then it will be captured
D. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 and a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 and has UDP as its protocol then it will be captured
Answer: C

20. You have configured the following on your device.
set address trust MyPC 10.1.1.5/32
set address untrust CorpNet 10.10.0.0/16
set policy from trust to untrust MyPC CorpNet any permit
set int tunnel.1 zone untrust
set int tunnel.1 ip unnumbered int bgroup1
set ike gateway GW address 1.1.1.1 outgoing-interface e0/1 preshare Secret sec-level standard
set vpn VPN gateway GW sec-level standard
The tunnel interface is down, so the VPN cannot function properly. What is the problem?
A. The policy needs to have the action tunnel.
B. The VPN needs to be bound to the tunnel interface.
C. The tunnel interface needs to be placed in the trust zone.
D. The tunnel interface needs to be associated with the interface in the untrust zone.
Answer: B

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免费HP0-710学习资料

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2008年09月29日

免费MB3-430学习资料

Filed under: Microsoft — admin @ 10:13 pm

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:(您也可以联系我下载部分最新MB3-430考试题库)

 
 
Exam : MBS MB3-430
Title : GP 9.0 Manufacturing Applications

1. Account numbers for standard cost items can be defined in which window? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. Item Account Maintenance window
B. Item Account Maintenance – Costing window
C. Standard Item Material Cost Window
D. Roll Up and Revalue Inventory Window
Answer: AB

2. What are phantom bill of materials designed for?
A. Subassemblies that are not held in stock and are usually assembled only when needed
B. Items or subassemblies that should not appear on the picklist
C. Used to mark items that will not be needed for that Manufacturing Order
D. Phantom bill of materials can not be defined in the system
Answer: A

3. To make changes to a manufacturing (active) routing without changing the planning routing first, what window is used?
A. Manufacturing Order Routing Sequence Edit window
B. Routing Utilities window
C. Routing Sequence Entry window
D. Routing Query window
Answer: A

4. The lead time offset for materials on the BOM can be calculated from which of the following dates?
A. Manufacturing Order Due Date only
B. Manufacturing Order Start Date only
C. Manufacturing Order Due Date or Start Date
D. No offset date can be chosen
Answer: C

5. Which of the following routing times are calculated on a per piece basis? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. Setup Time
B. Labor Time
C. Machine Time
D. Queue Time
Answer: BC

6. If an item can be used as a substitute for one of the components required to manufacture another item, what window is used to make this entry?
A. BOM Entry
B. Item Engineering
C. Item Resource Planning
D. Item Maintenance Options
Answer: A

7. Which of the following is a valid order policy in Manufacturing? Choose the 3 that apply.
A. Lot for Lot
B. Period Order Quantity
C. Manufacture Order Policy
D. Fixed Order Quantity
Answer: ABD

8. When copying a routing which of the following steps are possible? Choose the 4 that apply.
A. Creating a header record
B. Copying a sequence of steps
C. Copying an entire routing
D. Renumber routing sequences
Answer: ABCD

9. How are by-products designated on a bill of material?
A. Access BOM/Picklist detail for a line item and mark as by-product
B. Add a note to this line item to document by-product status and do a manual inventory adjustment to increment on hand for this item
C. Create a line item with a negative quantity on the bill of material and MO receipt will automatically increment on hand for that item
D. Set the bill of material to type by-product
Answer: C

10. What is the purpose of the BOM Security window?
A. Control who has access to the BOM Entry window
B. Ensure a bill of material will not be changed
C. Used to audit who made the last update to a BOM
D. Used to see who has a bill of material record currently in use or locked
Answer: D

11. Which of the following best describes the back flushing option on the Bill of Material?
A. The system will automatically look at the bill of material for quantities and save you the time of creating manufacturing order pick lists
B. If you select back flushing on the bill of material, you will not have to manually enter production times in the system
C. The system automatically consumes the quantity required on the bill of material/picklist during MO Receipt process so you do not manually issue material
D. An item can be flagged as back flushed on the Item Engineering Window
Answer: C

12. If you have an item on a bill of material that can have a substitute if that item is out of stock, how should the alternate item be designated on the bill of material?
A. Delete the item that is out of stock from the bill of material and add the alternate to the bill of material before creating the manufacturing order
B. Add the alternate item to the picklist for the manufacturing order
C. Add the alternate item to the bill of material, mark it as an alternate, and designate for which item this is an alternate
D. Add the alternate item to the bill of material, right click, and select it as an alternate
Answer: C

13. If work in process (WIP) is not used to enter information about the amount of labor or machine time used for the sequence, what selection(s) need to be marked in the Routing sequence entry screen? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. Auto-Back flush Labor
B. Auto-Back flush Machine
C. Auto-Back flush Material
D. Auto-Back flush All
Answer: AB

14. The Dynamics – GP Distribution Series BOM and the Manufacturing Series BOM both have a bill of material (BOM) module, which statement best describes their compatibility?
A. The Manufacturing bill of material module is a complete separate entity from the Distribution Series bill of material module
B. Distribution Series does not have a Bill of Material module, so there is not a compatibility issue
C. The Distribution and Manufacturing modules have an interface that allows for linking these two modules
D. When you install Manufacturing, the system will automatically convert Distribution information to the manufacturing bill of material tables
Answer: A

15. When setting up a new actual cost finished good item, which of the following accounts should be set up if both material and labor data will be collected for the item? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. Standard Cost Revaluation
B. WIP – Material
C. Variance – Material
D. WIP – Labor
Answer: BD

16. In the Item Engineering window available choices for the fulfillment method are: Choose the 3 that apply.
A. Make to Stock
B. Make to Order – Manual
C. Make to Order – Silent
D. Assemble to Order
Answer: ABC

17. When a work center has been entered and saved which of the following statements are true?
A. The work center is assigned as a default
B. The work center is automatically excluded from MRP calculations
C. An inventory site record has been created
D. The work center is automatically assigned to all items
Answer: C

18. Which status(s) can an item have in order for MRP to calculate that item?
A. Active
B. Pre-released
C. Released
D. Service
Answer: ABCD

19. Which statement below best defines Fixed Quantity?
A. The quantity of the component item that is required for every manufacturing order, regardless of the order quantity
B. The quantity of the component item that is required to make one finished good
C. The quantity of the finished good at the end of production
D. A fixed quantity can not be entered on the BOM
Answer: A

20. Before a bill of material can be used in manufacturing order entry, what dates will affect the use of this bill of material?
A. The system does not validate dates for bill of materials
B. The component in/out dates and MO end date
C. The BOM effective date and component in/out dates
D. The allocation dates on the picklist
Answer: C

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Exam : Cisco 650-175
Title : SMBAM SMB Specialization for Account Managers

1. Refer to the following items, which two are components of the Discovery Guide in the Cisco sales approach? (Choose two.)
A. probing more deeply into the customer’s business challenges
B. recommending a business needs-based solution
C. calculating the customer’s business need priorities
D. ranking customer business needs
Answer: CD

2. In the SPA9000 Voice system, which three components are bundled?
A. intercom and group paging
B. voice mail
C. auto attendant
D. contact center features
Answer: ABC

3. Which three statements best describe the features of the ProtectLink Gateway product? (Choose three.)
A. provides encryption between a browser and a web server
B. provides web server content filtering is bundled in the SPS platform
C. provides content filtering for e-mail blocks 97% of SPAM
D. protects from spyware and phishing attacks
Answer: BCD

4. Which three characteristics are common to the majority of switches in the Cisco Small Business portfolio? (Choose three.)
A. stacking options
B. VLAN support
C. Power over Ethernet
D. Quality of Service
Answer: BCD

5. The Cisco Monitor Director enables Cisco partners and managed service providers to provide comprehensive 24-hour remote real-time monitoring and management of data and voice services to
their small and medium-sized (SMB) customers with 5 to 250 users. Which description is correct about Cisco Monitor Director (CMD)?
A. CMD provides a weekly reporting facility.
B. CMD is an SNMP alarm-based monitoring function.
C. CMD provides network management at a Cisco partner location.
D. CMD allows monitoring of up to 100 SMBs.
Answer: C

6. Cisco Integrated Services Routers (ISR) help organizations optimize branch services into a single platform that delivers a consistent user experience with a lower total cost of ownership. Why are Integrated Services Routers well-positioned for the SMB market? (Choose two.)
A. They require no configuration to install.
B. They scan packets for malicious activity.
C. They offer the best choice for remote access needs.
D. They are integrated with firewall capabilities.
Answer: CD

7. bMightyResearch shows that a significant percentage of SMBs will consider which factor in a UC solution?
A. costs out-weighing benefits
B. non-Cisco vendors providing more viable SMB solutions
C. cost savings to justify replacing existing legacy systems
D. minimized call-center effectiveness
Answer: C

8. Which three features can indicate that a potential SMB customer is in the SBR-defined growth phase? (Choose three.)
A. requesting convergence of voice and data
B. providing a customer with a basic up-to-date website
C. wanting greater connectivity for customers
D. focusing on becoming more efficient
Answer: ACD

9. Which two indicators should be taken into consideration by a customer when installing a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.)
A. want to provide employee wireless access
B. need between two and three access points
C. need more than four access points
D. want to provide guest wireless access
Answer: CD

10. Which of the following is the requirement for SMB network?
A. QoS, multicast, cost effectiveness, redundancy
B. scalability, effectiveness, high availability, mobility
C. centralization, security, highly available, scalability
D. cost effectiveness, high availability, hosting multiple protocols, hosting web servers
Answer: B

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000-973题库,不同于Testiinside 000-973、certtinside 000-973、Pass4side000-973、Testking000-973、Pass4sure000-973的题库资料,是全球IT认证资料供应力量,以高科技的仿真效果,完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题,保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

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3.如果你使用 Examsoon模拟测试,我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功,否则,我们将全额退款!

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000-973 考试是 IBM 公司的 Power Systems Sales for the IBM I Operating System 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的 000-973 权威考试题库软件是 IBM 认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 000-973考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

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Exam : IBM 000-973
Title : Power Systems Sales for the IBM i Operating System

1. A prospect is concerned about maximizing return on IT investments. Which new features of IBM i V6.1 should be emphasized?
A. Advanced virtualization, SAN Integration, Active Energy Manager.
B. Single level storage, Object based architecture, Work Management features.
C. Hypervisor LPARs, Solaris OS container support, DB2 for IBM i enhancements.
D. TSM Encryption enhancements, Web-based systems management, COBOL improvements.
Answer: A

2. Which of the following features would accelerate the decision to upgrade to IBM i V6.1 for a V5R4 customer in the banking industry?
A. Additional ISV solution packages
B. Encrypted BRMS backups of user data
C. Availability of IBM Director for IBM i
D. Trial Capacity on Demand available in all LPARs
Answer: B

3. A midsized company currently has a POWER5 550. They want to better control the complexity and high IT costs associated with having added low-end x86 type servers running Java and Linux based workloads. They are currently at V5R4M5 and plan to upgrade to IBM i V6.1. Which of the following should be proposed?
A. IBM BladeCenter
B. IBM Systems Director
C. Integrated xSeries Servers (IXS)
D. Management Central for POWER Systems
Answer: A

4. The CIO of a bank is concerned about personally identifiable information resident on disk. Which of the following options introduced at IBM i V6.1 should be investigated?
A. IBM i Encrypted ASP Enablement
B. IBM Secure Perspectives for System i
C. IBM i Database Encryption Exit points
D. IBM i Cryptography Application Program Interfaces (APIs)
Answer: A

5. Which business benefits should be presented to the CFO of a Power Systems prospect?
A. ROI, reduced TCO, reduced deployment time.
B. Cache-less disk, greater throughput, and network integration
C. Disk Virtualization Gen 4: Eliminates outages due to disk failure.
D. Full integration of the HMC and IBM i, enabling automatic PTF and operating system version upgrades.
Answer: A

6. A customer’s data center has multiple stand-alone Windows and Linux-based servers. This customer has limited physical space and complains of having to spend much of their time in system administration. Which of the following will address this customer’s needs and provided the lowest TCO?
A. Convert all applications to a Linux based server environment.
B. Consolidate all storage onto a DS8300 to lower overall disk costs.
C. Suggest rack mounted Windows servers to free up floor space and simplify system administration.
D. Consolidate onto Power Systems with IBM i hosting Linux partitions and iSCSI attached Windows blades.
Answer: D

7. A customer with two model 820s and 14 older Windows servers has a requirement to refresh the servers due to growing workload demands. Which of the following provides the most cost-effective solution?
A. Power 520 with IXAs to replace Windows servers
B. Power 550 with iSCSI attached SAN and BladeCenter
C. BladeCenter H with Blades for IBM i and Windows using VMWare
D. BladeCenter S with Blades for IBM i and Windows using VMWare
Answer: D

8. A customer needs to replace an old PBX (Private Branch Exchange) telephone system. Which of the following solutions should be proposed?
A. Sametime Voice Client
B. IBM PBX Bridge server
C. System i IP Telephony
D. IBM CallPath telephony server
Answer: C

9. A customer with a i5/OS V5R4 is concerned about the security of the data on their full-system backup tapes. Which of the following solutions should be recommended to this customer?
A. Tivoli Storage Manager
B. Native i5/OS encryption function in V5R4
C. Virtual tapes to encrypted independent ASP
D. IBM i V6.1 – Encrypted Backup Enablement option
Answer: D

10. A food distribution company failed their IT audit because the company could not prove to the auditors their data was secure. Which of the following solutions should be suggested to resolve this issue?
A. Enhanced IBM Intrusion Detection and Prevention Software solution.
B. Implement the IBM i V6.1 Data Integrity and Security Licensed Program Product.
C. Encrypted BRMS backup solution for user data to physical or virtual tape devices.
D. Install IBM i V6.1 Advanced Virtualization Software which masks and cloaks backup data without impacting user access.
Answer: C

11. A Power Systems customer is preparing to purchase a smaller competitor which uses different platforms and operating systems. The CFO has expressed a concern about integrating the acquired company’s IT operations and business management systems into their current systems.
What would be the best way to proceed in developing a strategic IT integration plan?
A. Schedule a CDAT (Consolidation Discovery and Analysis Tool) study.
B. Explain how the uptime percentage of the IBM i will help maintain business continuity.
C. Discuss the features, advantages and benefits of running Windows on an IBM i-based Power server.
D. Meet with the IT staff and determine what the systems, current environment, and volumes are at the acquired company.
Answer: D

12. A prospect wants to simplify IT operations and storage management administration. Which IBM i features should be presented?
A. Web-based Performance Data Investigator.
B. IBM i on POWER blades with Virtual I/O partitions.
C. PowerHA Cluster Manager (HASM) and PowerHA iCluster.
D. Virtual IBM i partitions and storage space snapshots.
Answer: D

13. An IT manager needs to justify the cost of a new Power Systems server with Integrated Virtualization Manager in IBM i. What business benefits should be considered?
A. Improves system throughput resulting in greater productivity.
B. Provides for application portability resulting in improved performance.
C. Limits the required software licenses thereby reducing total cost of ownership.
D. Provides easier and more secure system administration and management for reduced staff requirements.
Answer: D

14. Which of the following, in IBM i V6.1, helps ISVs with Java application portability?
A. IBM 64-bit JVM
B. Zend PHP on IBM i
C. Rational Application Developer
D. Integrated Web Application Server
Answer: A

15. Which of the following defines Reserved Capacity on demand?
A. Prepaid capacity on demand for processor(s)
B. Prepaid capacity on demand for processor(s) or memory
C. 30-days maximum prepaid capacity on demand for processor(s)
D. 30-days maximum prepaid capacity on demand for processor(s) or memory
Answer: A

16. A Power Systems 520 customer has approximately 6 TB of disk and 2 LPARs.
The production LPAR P1 hosts the customers manufacturing application.
LPAR P2 hosts the test/development environment.
Due to changing business requirements, the customer cannot risk any outage on the production LPAR and has decided to implement a High Availability/Disaster Recovery (HA/DR) solution.
Which solution provides the most reliable and cost effective HA/DR solution?
A. Install a second 520 at the same location and implement HA/DR software.
B. Install a second 520 at a secondary location and implement HA/DR software.
C. Use the test/dev LPAR to host the HA environment and implement HA/DR software between P1 and P2.
D. Expand the current server to host a third LPAR P3 for the HA environment and implement HA/DR software between P1 and P3.
Answer: B

17. A pharmaceutical company has 100 users supported by a Windows-based ERP solution. The IT Manager wants to replace their financial software because it is not compatible with the company’s European site operations. Which of the following approaches should be taken with this prospect?
A. Provide an extensive list Financial Software that runs on IBM i including the multicurrency support capability of V6.1.
B. Present an overview of the System i hardware and IBM i V6.1 capabilities and functionality as it relates to ERP solutions.
C. Set up a meeting to define a scope of their IT refresh project including budget, timeline, decision makers and approval process.
D. Develop an overall IT Strategic Plan for this company which includes IBM Bio Science Industry metrics using the IBM Solution Selling methodology.
Answer: C

18. A Power Systems customer has identified server consolidation and simplification as a primary goal in the IT strategic plan. The customer is concerned about the number of Intel-based servers and the management complexity. Which of the following solutions address the customer’s goal?
A. A SAN attached to the System i
B. Integrated File System with VMWare
C. Attached N Series storage with VMWare
D. IBM i Integration with an iSCSI attached BladeCenter
Answer: D

19. A prospect is concerned about managing system growth, complexity and security. What enhanced IBM i V6.1 features should be presented?
A. DB2 Web Query and PowerHA (HASM)
B. Active Energy Manager and iSCSI Integration
C. Browser-based management tools and encryption
D. Optimized Java Performance and integrated web services
Answer: C

20. Which of the following benefits should be discussed with an IT manager evaluating consolidation of 3 Windows servers on his Power Systems 520?
A. Capacity and memory on demand
B. Simplified operations and systems management
C. Business resiliency and native Windows drivers
D. Centralized workload performance analysis and balancing
Answer: B

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Exam : IBM 000-695
Title : Fundamentals of Enterprise Sol.Using IBM Tivoli Security

1. An exhaustive list of business processes has been gathered from the customer. A subset of the customer tasks performed relating to user management includes:
- Receive new user identity requests
- Receive requests for changes to user identities
- Use access policies to evaluate requests
- Gather approvals
- Place users in groups
- Update accounts
- Synchronize passwords
There is an important part of a good user management process that is missing. What is the missing process step?
A. Back up directory information.
B. Check that existing accounts are valid.
C. Verify user management process ownership.
D. Grant or block access to programs based on access policy.
Answer: B

2. Which statement describes a risk management scenario?
A. server A holds data that only users in special class A can access.
B. banks nightly reconciliation data must be ciphered while sitting in message queues.
C. unless we accomplish Web single sign-on, we are likely to face dissatisfied users and high help-desk costs.
D. all incoming security alerts and events must be analyzed quickly, in order to react to possible attacks on systems/networks.
Answer: D

3. Information on the current IT organization has been gathered in order to create a diagram of the organization. This information includes :
- divisions
- location(s) / geographical information
- reporting chains
What is another piece of essential information?
A. Business Units
B. e-mail addresses
C. Help Desk functions
D. If the customer has a dedicated Operations Center
Answer: A

4. Which security capability relates most strongly to the customer business process eployment of new or updated application initiatives?
A. Firewalls – because they protect the deployed applications from attack.
B. PKI – because it makes it easy to drive single sign-on to the deployed applications.
C. Compliance management – because the application is guaranteed to be running in a safe environment.
D. Callable authentication and access services – because that eliminates the need to include authentication and access code in the applications.
Answer: D

5. Which information is necessary in order to determine a customer’s IT environment infrastructure?
A. Last Enterprise inventory
B. Enterprise network topology
C. Company’s most recent Asset declaration
D. Number of security personnel in the Enterprise
Answer: B

6. In order to correctly understand the data protection requirements, which two groups of people must be interviewed? (Choose two.)
A. All managers
B. IT department personnel
C. Business Unit management
D. Legal department personnel
E. Human Resource department
Answer: CD

7. Which three business goals are direct results of a successful security management process? (Choose three.)
A. Increased data integrity
B. Increased data duplication
C. Reduced impact of threats
D. Eliminated any risk of frauds
E. Reduced TCO (Total Cost of Ownership) for account management
F. Decreased risk awareness among employees not working in the IT security department
Answer: ACE

8. In order to document how the IT organization coordinates their efforts, which two elements should be considered in conjunction with how IT conducts its business? (Choose two.)
A. sales
B. financials
C. human resource
D. key performance indicators
E. strategic alignment with business /objectives
Answer: DE

9. As you review a list of a customer business processes, you notice that the only time they describe anything to do with passwords is in the context of some work they have done to synchronize passwords across a number of platforms. Which three options will help fill the gap in their approach to passwords? (Choose three.)
A. password mirroring
B. switch user capability
C. secure password pickup
D. challenge-response capability
E. authentication step-up capability
F. user self-care for updating passwords
Answer: CDF

10. In terms of identity management maturity, what is the proper order – with the highest maturity level (1.) at the top and the lowest maturity level (4.) on the bottom?
A. 1. Extending security automation to business partners
2. Password management
3. Distributed administration
4. Provisioning approval and process automation
B. 1. Password management
2. Distributed administration
3. Provisioning approval and process automation
4. Extending security automation to business partners
C. 1. Extending security automation to business partners
2. Distributed administration
3. Provisioning approval and process automation
4. Password management
D. 1. Provisioning approval and process automation
2. Distributed administration
3. Password management
4. Extending security automation to business partners
Answer: C

11. When the pen Group certifies an IBM product, what advantage does the certification bring to IBM?
A. IBM can begin to publish certification exam tests of that product.
B. IBM can begin to sell the product world-wide without legal restrictions.
C. IBM has international license to position the product as IBM certified.
D. IBM has a stamp of approval guaranteeing the interoperability of the product.
Answer: C

12. Which three technologies would be considered when planning for Web single sign-on for a customer using IBM products? (Choose three.)
A. iv-user
B. Kerberos
C. Transport Layer Security
D. Trust Association Interceptor
E. Lightweight Third Party Authentication
F. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
Answer: BDE

13. In gathering information about the customer’s IT organization, the customer has mentioned the Operations staff, but has not included any details. Which three types of information would be useful when adding Operations to a diagram of the IT organization? (Choose three.)
A. SLAs
B. Location(s)
C. Reporting chain
D. Hours of operation
E. Relation to Help Desk
Answer: BCE

14. A current IBM Tivoli security customer is highly satisfied with their current IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (ITIM) and IBM Tivoli Access Manager (ITAM) implementations. The customer feels they have benefited greatly from their user management and provisioning, authentication, authorization and Web single sign-on processes now in place. The customer sees the value of Web services and wants to leverage their business partnerships to greatly expand the online services they offer for a relatively small investment. They are expecting that their existing ITIM and ITAM investments can simply be stretched to include these business-to-business (B2B) flows. What is the main requirement that requires IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager to be added to this scenario?
A. The blocking of threats that might otherwise cross enterprise boundaries.
B. The handling of potentially multi-millions of users, which neither ITIM nor ITAMeb was built to address.
C. The integration with firewalls that control security between any two businesses involved in these B2B flows.
D. The handling of multiple types of standards-based protocols and user tokens that need to be passed between participating businesses.
Answer: D

15. You are analyzing customer business processes to determine security requirements. Under the heading web Transactions employees and Customers you come across a business requirement described as nhance User Productivity What is the most likely corresponding security requirement?
A. audit
B. authorization
C. single sign-on
D. user provisioning
Answer: C

16. Interviews with the customer indicate a concern that they are not reacting quickly enough to possible attacks coming from the Internet or from within their own company. They have a number of administrators who receive daily events and alerts if something unusual has happened but no one can remember the last time any significant investigation or action was started based on these alerts and events. What are some key words that would apply, as you consider what to document about achieving possible higher levels of maturity?
A. access control, firewall, and honey pot
B. provisioning, auditing, and content management
C. correlation, incident management, and automation
D. identification, policy automation, and agent less connection
Answer: C

17. In discussions with the customer to determine their IT security process maturity levels, you encounter a number of interview subjects who seemed proud of their level of measuring the compliance of their servers and desktops to pre-established security policy. They are using IBM Tivoli Security Compliance Manager and they know which servers/desktops are in compliance and which are not. Non-compliant servers/desktop owners are notified of the steps they need to take to achieve compliance.
Which two additional capabilities would further enhance the customer’s security process maturity level in this area? (Choose two.)
A. The ability to remove the user’s accounts until they can demonstrate compliance.
B. The ability to encrypt select files on offending server/desktop systems?disks, until they can demonstrate compliance.
C. The ability to remove Web single sign-on until the user can demonstrate that their machine is back in compliance.
D. The ability to provide a entry service that prevents non-compliant machines from connecting to the network, until they achieve compliance.
E. The ability to offer push-button compliance options, simplifying the steps for users to get their non-compliant servers/desktops in compliance.
Answer: DE

18. Which IBM product is certified by Siebel for integration with Siebel V7?
A. IBM Tivoli Privacy Manager V1.2
B. IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V4.5.x
C. IBM Tivoli Directory Server V5.2
D. IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business V4.1
Answer: A

19. Selecting from the list of options below, what would need to be accomplished during an initial meeting with the customer when reviewing a company organizational chart?
1. Identify key decision makers
2. Document the key players and their roles
3. Determine the products to be used
4. Proof of Concept of the products in the solution
A. 3,4
B. 2,4
C. 1,3
D. 1,2
Answer: D

20. As you analyze a customer business processes, you focus on a subset dealing with cross-enterprise Web transactions, both HTML- and SOAP-based. Which three corresponding security requirements can be addressed by IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager? (Choose three.)
A. Federated (cross-enterprise) Web single sign-on
B. Federated (cross-enterprise) provisioning of users
C. Federated (cross-enterprise) authorization of access to Web resources (SOAP only)
D. Federated (cross-enterprise) authorization of access to Web resources (HTML only)
E. Federated (cross-enterprise) authorization of access to Web resources (SOAP and HTML)
F. Federated (cross-enterprise) assurance of compliance for both enterprises?desktops and servers
Answer: ABE

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000-695 考试是 IBM 公司的 Fundamentals of Enterprise Sol.Using IBM Tivoli Security 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的 000-695 权威考试题库软件是 IBM 认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 000-695考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

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4、本站000-695题库根据000-695考试的变化动态更新,在厂家考题每次发生变化后,我们承诺2天内更新000-695题库。确保000-695考题的覆盖率始终都在95%以上;我们提供2种 000-695 考题大师版本供你选择。

5、软件版本000-695 考试题库
优点:具有学习模式,测试模式,线上自动升级
缺点:仅限固定电脑使用,不可打印为文本,只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式000-695考试题库
优点:不需下载安装软件,方便用户打印和携带,但也带来了可随意制的弊端,因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的000-695题库,一经发现立即取消其升级资格,且不予退款。
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最新000-514认证考试题库下载

Filed under: IBM — admin @ 8:46 am

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Examsoon
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Examsoon
000-514题库,不同于Testiinside 000-514、certtinside 000-514、Pass4side000-514、Testking000-514、Pass4sure000-514的题库资料,是全球IT认证资料供应力量,以高科技的仿真效果,完全覆盖各类IT认证考试真题,保证您一次性得到最标准的认证真题测试。

Examsoon 000-514 的优势

1.Examsoon 模拟测试题具有最高的专业技术含量,只供具有相关专业知识的专家和学者学习和研究之用。

2.该测试已取得试题持有者和第三方的授权,我们深信IT业的专业人员和经理人有能力保证被授权产品的质量。

3.如果你使用 Examsoon模拟测试,我们将保证你的第一次参加考试即取得成功,否则,我们将全额退款!

4.提供每种产品免费测试。在您决定购买之前,请检测联接,可能存在的问题及试题质量和适用性。

000-514 考试是 IBM 公司的 db2 udb v7.1 family application development 认证考试官方代号,Examsoon的 000-514 权威考试题库软件是 IBM 认证厂商的授权产品,Examsoon 绝对保证第一次参加 000-514考试的考生即可顺利通过,否则承诺全额退款!

db2 udb v7.1 family application development 认证作为全球IT领域专家 IBM 热门认证之一,是许多大中IT企业选择人才标准的必备条件。 如果你正在准备 000-514 考试,为 IBM db2 udb v7.1 family application development认证做最后冲刺,又苦于没有绝对权威的考试真题模拟, Examsoon希望能助你成功。

1、Examsoon考题大师000-514试题都是考试原题的完美组合,覆盖率95%以上,答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出,正确率100%,只要您使用本站的考试题库参加000-514 考试,我们保证您一次轻松通过考试;

2、售后服务第一!我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功,必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务,只有客户满意了,我们才能发展。客户至上是我们Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨;

3、Examsoon实行“一次不过全额退款”承诺。如果您购买我们000-514的考题,只要不是首次通过,凭盖有PROMETRIC或VUE考试中心钢印的考试成绩单,我们将退还您购买000-514考题大师的全部费用,绝对保证您的利益不受到任何的损失;

4、本站000-514题库根据000-514考试的变化动态更新,在厂家考题每次发生变化后,我们承诺2天内更新000-514题库。确保000-514考题的覆盖率始终都在95%以上;我们提供2种 000-514 考题大师版本供你选择。

5、软件版本000-514 考试题库
优点:具有学习模式,测试模式,线上自动升级
缺点:仅限固定电脑使用,不可打印为文本,只能PC阅读

6、PDF 格式000-514考试题库
优点:不需下载安装软件,方便用户打印和携带,但也带来了可随意制的弊端,因此我们提醒用户不得随意公开或出售本站的000-514题库,一经发现立即取消其升级资格,且不予退款。
缺点:不具备测试模式,通过查看Examsoon网站及查收我们的更新E-MAIL获取更新信息。

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